No, because people who have the same age can have different zip codes.
Answer:
Option C
Step-by-step explanation:
Check the attached photo.
The value of the f(-8) from the given f(x) is 1/53.
According to the statement
we have given that the value of f(x) and with the value of this we hav eto find the value of f(-8).
So, For this purpose,
The given value of f(x) :
The function f(x) is
f(x) = 1 / x^2 -11
Now we find the value of the f(-8) then
For this put Put x is -8 in the f(x) then the equation become
f(x) = 1 / x^2 -11
f(-8) = 1 / (-8)^2 -11
f(-8) = 1 / 64 -11
f(-8) = 1 / 53.
here the value becomes 1/53.
So, The value of the f(-8) from the given f(x) is 1/53.
Learn more about function f(x) here
brainly.com/question/4025726
#SPJ1
Looking at the table everything is correct if that is what you are asking.
