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CaHeK987 [17]
3 years ago
14

Pina Colada Corp. holds Tamarisk, Inc. $44400, 120-day, 15% note. The entry made by Pina Colada Corp. when the note is collected

, assuming no interest has previously been accrued is: (Use 360 days for calculation.)
Business
1 answer:
Dafna1 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below

Cash  $46,620

     To Notes Receivable $44,400

     To Interest receivable ($44,400 × 15% × 120 days ÷  360 days)

(Being the cash received is recorded)

Here we debited the cash as it increased the assets and at the same time we credited the interest receivable and the note receivable as it decreased the assets

The same is to be considered

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Radford Inc. manufactures a sugar product by a continuous process, involving three production departments-Refining, Sifting, and
Leni [432]

Answer: Please find answers in explanation column

Explanation:

To record flow of cost of raw materials

     Account                                               Debit           Credit  

1) Work in process-Refining department $385,000  

            Raw           Materials                                            $385,000

To record flow of  labour cost

Account                                                         Debit           Credit  

2) Work in process-Refining department    $143,000  

          Wages payable                                $143,000

To record applied factory overhead

Account                                                           Debit           Credit  

3) Work in process-Refining department    $99,000  

factory overhead-refining department                             $99,000  

Entry to record the transfer of production costs to the second department, Sifting.

Account                                                    Debit           Credit  

4) Work in process-Sifting department $626,800  

Work in process-Refining department                           $626,800

calculation

Beginning work in process +   raw material + wages payable + factory overhead - ending work in process

$29,600 + $385,000+ $143,000 +$99,000 - $29,800   =$626,800

6 0
3 years ago
The best indication of a property's value comes from:
Andrej [43]
I believe the correct answer is option C. The best indication of a property's value comes from recently sold properties. A property's value would be higher when the place is a transportation access point and around it many infrastructure are present or it is a tourist spot.
8 0
3 years ago
Maya owes $20,000 on her credit cards, her adjustable mortgage rate has just gone up, and she has been out of work for 3 months.
grigory [225]

Answer: exhaustion

Explanation:

Given the information provided in the question, we are told that Maya collapsed and had to be taken to the emergency room. According to Hans Selye, Maya is in the exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome.

At this stage, Maya's energy resources has been depleted after failing to recover from shock.

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cereal is negative −1.03. If​ so, then the demand for cereal is (unit-elastic, elasti
kari74 [83]

Answer:

The demand for cereal is elastic.

The demand for the magazine is inelastic.

Explanation:

The price elasticity of demand is the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded to change in price. A negative price elasticity implies that the product is a normal good.

The price elasticity of demand for cereal is −1.03. This means that the demand is price elastic. An elastic demand implies that a change in price will cause more than proportionate change in quantity demanded.

The price elasticity of demand for a particular magazine is −0.72. This means that the demand is price inelastic. An inelastic demand implies that a change in price will cause less than proportionate change in the quantity demanded.

5 0
3 years ago
the italian airline alitalia will pay $10 million to United Airlines one year from today. The spot rate is $1.35/E, while the 1-
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

alitalia should do the forward hedge to hedge its transaction exposure

Explanation:

Alitalia can construct the money market hedge as follows

1. borrow Euro whose present value is equal to the amount to be paid.

2. convert it to foreign currency at the current spot rate.

3. place it in a deposit

4. make the payment when the deposit reaches maturity

PV of payment = 10000000/1.05

                         = 9523809.525

converting in to Euro at the spot rate we get 6802721.09 Euros

so Alitalia has to borrow the above amount and convert it and invest it at 5%.

now the payable amount from the loan is  6802721.09(1+0.03) = 7006802.72 Euros

Hence Alitalia has effective managed to locl in a forward rate of 1.427$/euros (10000000/7006802.72)$/euros

Therefore, alitalia should do the forward hedge to hedge its transaction exposure

6 0
3 years ago
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