1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Aneli [31]
3 years ago
12

Which statement best expresses the American value of equality?

Social Studies
2 answers:
makvit [3.9K]3 years ago
4 0
The answer would be A.
Scilla [17]3 years ago
4 0
A sorry if incorrect
You might be interested in
The first Jewish migrants were attracted to jamaica because​
Mama L [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

Of weed

5 0
3 years ago
What was the plantation system? How and why did it develop in South Carolina?
makvit [3.9K]
It was the system that caused death among people all around
8 0
4 years ago
Samantha is identifying different minerals she found on vacation which property of the mineral will Samantha
grigory [225]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

hhdjddudndudidjdjfht n.y r8rir

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Do u agree with Karl Marxs view on the effect of industrialization why and how​
Alla [95]

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

We see the effects of perpetuated industrialization in every aspect of our lives; in the fetishism of commodities and in the rapid commodification of every aspect of our lives, in the development of capital to the point where it and its constituents are the sole dictators of society, and through the effects of industrialization on the globe, climate, etc.

We also can empirically and easily see that wealth inequality has been inevitably rising over time, as the gap between rich and poor has been getting wider over the years. Marx claimed that the industrial revolution had polarised the gap between the owners of the means of production (the capitalist class, the bourgoesie) and the workers (the proletariat) even further, and such was obviously true and is apparent in any analysis of the aforementioned event.

3 0
3 years ago
Why might the "Administration of Justice Act" have allowed British officials to "get away with murder"?
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

Correct answer is It prohibited colonists from testifying in trials in London.

Explanation:

This law known as Murder Act was allowing British officers to get away with murder because the trials were held in Britain. That is why this is a correct answer. Colonist were not able to come to London to testify, so without their testimony it was impossible to accuse soldiers for murder. That is why all other options are false. They had trial, but as we said it was practically  impossible to convict them.

4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • HOW DID HANFEIZI BELIEVE HAT PEOPLE NEEDED LAWS AND PUNISHMENTS
    5·1 answer
  • how in life in the colonies has changed since the British have taken a greater interest in the colonies?
    14·1 answer
  • Whats the differnce between religious and schizophrenia?
    15·1 answer
  • If a nutrient is in such short supply in an ecosystem that it affects an animal’s growth, the
    14·2 answers
  • Which of the following is the first of our senses to develop?
    15·1 answer
  • Jak rozumiesz stwierdzenie, że reportaż jest „swoistą mozaiką”?<br> plz na dzisiaj
    9·1 answer
  • Explain the difference between the collective rights and individual rights views of the Second Amendment.
    12·1 answer
  • Question:Aldof Hitler had a very strong sense of ?????
    11·1 answer
  • Your Answer
    6·1 answer
  • How can we explain how the U.S. government and state governments could endorse institutional racism?Or Why do you think this was
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!