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Salsk061 [2.6K]
3 years ago
5

A seller delivered a deed to a buyer at the closing. A title search disclosed no serious defects, and the title did not appear t

o be based on doubtful questions of law or fact nor did it appear to expose the buyer to possible litigation. The seller's title did not appear to present a threat to the buyer's quiet enjoyment, and the title policy was sufficient to convince a reasonably well-informed person that the property could be resold. The title conveyed would commonly be called
Business
1 answer:
IgorLugansk [536]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A marketable title

Explanation:

A marketable title in real estate is on that is legally considered free from defect. Buyers will have no issues with accepting the title because there are no objectionable items associated with the title.

It means the property in question is free of easements, liens, encumbrances or other legal defects.

In the given scenario a title search disclosed no serious defects, and the title did not appear to be based on doubtful questions of law or fact nor did it appear to expose the buyer to possible litigation.

This is a marketable title.

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Aiello, Inc. had the following inventory in fiscal 2016. The company uses the LIFO method of accounting for inventory. Beginning
quester [9]

Answer:

The correct answer is B. $1,800.00

Explanation:

LIFO Perpetual table is attached.

The table shows purchases, sales and balance of each period.

As the final inventory is 120 units, we suppose the sales of the year.  Applying LIFO,  our ending inventory cost is 120 units, each one at $15

So,  total cost is $1800 (120* 15)

Download xlsx
8 0
3 years ago
A business entity operated and taxed like a partnership, but with limited liability for the owners, is called a:
Masteriza [31]

Answer: A. limited liability company.

Explanation:

A Limited Liability Company (LLC) is a type of company that is operated and taxed like a partnership for instance, profits that flow to the partners are taxed on the partner's income but not on the firm to prevent double taxation. This is called Flow-Through Taxation.

They operate with limited Liability for the owners because the owners are only personally liable for the debts and liabilities the company has up until the capital they invested. Anything past this and they cannot be held liable.

8 0
3 years ago
Why is using money as a medium of exchange preferable to bartering?
Y_Kistochka [10]

Answer:

Money as a medium of exchange is more preferable because of its less cumbersome nature.

Explanation:

Money as a medium of exchange is more suitable because of its less cumbersome nature. Money was invented because of the inefficient nature of the barter system.

Money is easily stored compared to a barter system.

Money as a medium of exchange eliminates the barter system's problem of double coincidence of wants. Barter works when you trade things you own for things you want. If for example you want a bicycle and you own a goat, you have to look for someone who wants a goat and owns a bicycle willing to make an exchange, which can be quite difficult.

Money is an acceptable medium of exchange to all parties which makes it more preferable to bartering.

8 0
3 years ago
You want to buy a new sports coupe for $75,200, and the finance office at the dealership has quoted you a loan with an APR of 7.
charle [14.2K]

Answer:

1. $1,821.76

2. 7.87%

Explanation:

We use the PMT formula that is shown in the attachment below:

Provided that

Present value = $75,200

Future value = $0

Rate of interest = 7.6% ÷ 2 = 0.6333333%

NPER = 48 months

The formula is shown below:

= PMT(Rate;NPER;-PV;FV;type)

The present value come in negative

So, after solving this, the monthly payment is $1,821.76

2. Now the effective annual rate is

= (1 + APR ÷ number of months)^number of months - 1

= (1 + 7.6% ÷ 12)^12 - 1

= 7.87%

4 0
3 years ago
An employee of a firm has a job where the employee can easily adjust the number of hours they work for the employer per year. Th
USPshnik [31]

Answer:

The answer to both a and b is in the explanation below

Explanation:

a) The increase in wage can either decrease or increase the hours worked. This is became an increase in wage has both substitution effect and income effect that work in different directions. Substitution effect An increase in wage increases the opportunity cost of leisure, thereby making the worker increase number of hours worked. Income effect The increase in wage also makers the worker richer, thereby making the worker decrease number of hours worked.

Since no information about worker's preferences is given, we do not Imow which effect will dominate the other effect and, therefore, we do not know what the net impact of the increase in wage will be.

b) The bonus will only have income effect. The bonus will make the workers richer, thereby making the worker decrease number of hours worked.

If in part a), the substitution effect and income effect are equal in magnitude, then there will be no change in the number of hours worked. The number of hours worked will remain the same at 2000 hours. Since the employer would be paying $5 extra on each hour worked, the cost to the employer of increase in wage would be $10,000 (=2000 x $5), which is the same as the bonus in part b).

6 0
3 years ago
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