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Minchanka [31]
3 years ago
15

High-Rise Boots Corp. plans to expand into the European market where it finds weak pressure to respond to local demands and cost

reductions are not necessary. Which competitive strategy should the company use based on these factors
Business
1 answer:
Alekssandra [29.7K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Home replication strategy

Explanation:

The competitive strategy should the company use based on these factors is the home replication strategy. In this strategy, there is a minimal need for flexibility or modifications.

Since the company finds weak pressure to respond to local demands and cost reductions are not necessary, then the home replication strategy is applicable.

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Suppose that when the price of a 16 oz. to-go cup of gourmet coffee is $4.25, students purchase 750 cups per day. if the price d
KIM [24]
The outcome that is expected is that the students would purchase more than 750 cups per day. This is a good selling strategy because it raises the belief that they are buying more and it is cheaper. The result is that the business will have better outcomes and the incomes will increase. Not to mention that the clients will prefer same quality of cofee for a "cheaper" price. 
7 0
3 years ago
On January 1 of the current reporting year, Coda Company's projected benefit obligation was $29.4 million. During the year, pens
Sav [38]

Answer:

The amount of the projected benefit obligation at December 31 was  $ 38.34 million

Explanation:

According to the given data, we have the following:

Beginning PBO= $29.4 million

Service cost= $9.4 million

The actuary's discount rate was 10%, hence Interest cost (10% x $29.4 million)= $2.94 million

Also, there is a Loss (gain) on PBO=$0 , and pension benefits paid by the trustee were $3.4 million.

Therefore, to calculate the amount of the projected benefit obligation at December 31 we would have to use the following formula:

Ending PBO=Beginning PBO+Service cost+Interest cost-pension benefits

                   =$29.4 million+$9.4 million+$2.94-$3.4 million

                   =$38.34 million

4 0
3 years ago
A building's owner pays a property manager in 81/2% commission based on the units annualized rent for each new tenant last year
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Commission paid by the building owner to the property Manager for the new tenant is $4575.

<h3>What is a Commission?</h3>

A brokerage receives compensation for delivering a customer who signs a lease by way of a rental commission. Frequently, rental commissions are stated as months of rent or as a percentage of the annual rent.

The calculation for the Commission of Property Manager:

Commission = Total annualised rent x percentage of Commission

                     = (795 x 12 x 3 + 1200 x 12 + 900 x 12) x 8.5%

                     = 53820 x 8.5% = $4,575

Commission for the property manager = $4,575.  

   

Thus,  a rental commission, a brokerage is paid for bringing a consumer who signs a lease. The commission for the property manager is $4,575.

Learn more about Commission here:

brainly.com/question/20987196

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5 0
2 years ago
John has an auto which is covered for collision losses subject to a $250 deductible. Kate's auto also has collision coverage but
DerKrebs [107]

Answer: D. Kate's policy will pay $1,500, and John's policy will pay $250.

Explanation:

The deductible is the amount that a policy holder has to pay before the insurance company pays the remaining amount.

From the question, we are informed that John has an auto which is covered for collision losses subject to a $250 deductible while Kate's auto also has collision coverage but her deductible is $500.

If a $2,000 collision loss occurs when John borrows Kate's car because his car is in the shop for repairs, since John has a deductible of $500, Kates policy will pay ($2000 - $500) = $1500 and John's policy will pay $250.

3 0
3 years ago
Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
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