Answer:
a-The present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-The total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
Explanation:
a-
Let the function of the revenue earned is given as
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0The present value is given as [tex]PV=\int\limits^a_b {S(t)e^{-rt}} \, dt](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3EThe%20present%20value%20is%20given%20as%20%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5Ea_b%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-rt%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt)
Here
- a and b are the limits of integral which are 0 and 1 respectively
- r is the rate of interest which is 5% or 0.05
- S(t) is the function of value which is
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0So the equation becomes[tex]PV=\int\limits^0_1 {S(t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t+38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=8113.7805+18764.4669+34207.6751\\PV=61085.9225](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fli%3E%3C%2Ful%3E%3Cp%3ESo%20the%20equation%20becomes%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_1%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%2B38000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2838000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D8113.7805%2B18764.4669%2B34207.6751%5C%5CPV%3D61085.9225)
So the present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-
The time in which the machine pays for itself is given as
The present value is set equal to the value of machine which is given as
$160,000 so the equation becomes:
So the total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
Answer:
I think Sears need to stop diversifying its product too much and focus on improving internal human resources.
Explanation:
The largest expense that Sears made occurred during their effort to add more female customers to shop at their place.
Sears was known for its DieHard, Craftsman and Kenmore brands that attract mostly male customers to their stores. They started “The Softer Side of Sears” which focused on adding more products for female customers.
But, in the process of doing so, Sears neglected their already successful male products department with a lot of employees who sacrifice a lot of their time and effort into making Sears as big as it is.
In order to restore to its former glory, Sears need to stop focusing on new market with a lot of strong competitors and focused on improving skill set of employees in their successful department. They can do this by investing in their education, increasing the budget for their research and development, etc.
Answer:
$778.05625
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of repayment is shown in the attachment below:
Given that
Proceeds for year 4 through 9 at $2Z, $3Z
The Principal of the loan amount = $10,000
Interest rate = 7% per year
Based on the given information, the value of Z or the amount of repayment is
= Principal of the loan amount ÷ Total annuity
= $10,000 ÷ 12.85254119
= $778.05625
Answer:
Modified Rebuy.
Explanation:
Modified Rebuy can be defined as the desires of a buyer to re-purchase or reorder the products previously bought but with certain modifications either in prices, products, suppliers, or terms. The buyer may modify the current purchasing terms because he may not be satisfied with the supplier or may have some new requirements.
In the given case, the modification in supplier has been made by the organization to get a better price. Thus this is an example of modified rebuy.
So, the correct answer is modified rebuy.
Answer:
The Cash paid to suppliers was $85,000
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Cost of goods sold = $100,000
Decrease in inventory = $5,000
Increase in accounts payable = $10,000
Now,
Cash paid to suppliers will be
= Cost of goods sold - Decrease in inventory - Increase in accounts payable
= $100,000 - $5,000 - $10,000
= $85,000
Hence,
The Cash paid to suppliers was $85,000
