Answer:
$33467.03
Explanation:
Given: we are given that $33000 is the cost of the car that’s on sale if the person wants a cash option.
Leasing option of $495 per month for the next two years with an immediate payment of $95 as a balloon payment for the vehicle.
The person will sell the vehicle for $21000 after 2 years from now.
We need to calculate the breakeven price to sell the vehicle after two years if the person sold the car on either option.
Therefore we will use the future value annuity formula to calculate how much would yield on the lease payments of $495 after two years first.
![Fv = P [((1+r) ^n)-1)/r]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Fv%20%3D%20P%20%5B%28%281%2Br%29%20%5En%29-1%29%2Fr%5D)
Where Fv is the future value that will yield from the payments.
P is the periodic payment which is $495 per month.
r is the interest per period so in this case it is 5%/12 as the 5% is on an annual basis and the individual will make monthly payments.
n is the number of payments made and in this case it is 24 payments because $495 is paid monthly for 2 years.
Now we insert the values on the formula above
Fv = $495 [((1+ (5%/12) ^24)-1)/ (5%/12)] then compute on a calculator and get the answer
Fv = $12467.03 + $95 we add $95 to the solution because the customer must pay it as a deposit if they choose the lease option.
The value the customer must sell the car for to break even for both options in two years’ time is the sum of $21000 which the customer sells the car for in two years’ time plus the above future value for the lease repayments, so $21000+ $12467.03 =$33467.03 .
I’m pretty sure that it is A. Cost of Goods Sold!
Answer:
$1,247.12
Explanation:
For computing the asked price we need to apply the present value formula i.e to be shown in the attachment below
Given that,
Future value = $1,000
Rate of interest = 4.151% ÷ 2 = 2.076%
NPER = 17 years × 2 = 34 years
The 20 years come from May 2019 to May 2036
PMT = $1,000 × 6.193% ÷ 2 = $30.965
The formula is shown below:
= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
So, after applying the above formula, the present value or the ask price is $1,247.12
Answer:
Small
Explanation:
Fixed costs are the costs that do not change when output level changes, while variable costs are costs that change as output quantity changes.
When a production process is capacity constrained, it implies that there is a factor that does not allow it to produce more output. Examples of such factors are minor bottlenecks, constrained designs and resources, and others.
A process is said to be efficient when it can avoid waste of resources in producing desired output.
Efficiency improvement therefore occurs when more output can be produced with less resources.
In the question, given that the process is currently capacity-constrained, efficiency improvement will result in producing more output at higher costs because of high variable costs despite that the process has low fixed costs.
As a result, the impact of an efficiency improvement will be small because producing more output will result in incurring higher cost due to high variable costs that change as quantity of output changes. That is, the impact of efficiency improvement will be small because high variable costs with low fixed cost will result in higher production cost.
The formula is
A=p (1+r/k)^kt
A future value 12200
P present value 6100
R interest rate ?
K compounded quarterly 4
T time 9 years
Set the equation and solve for r (interest rate)
12200=6100 (1+r/4)^(4×9)
Divide both sides by 6100
12200/6100=(1+r/4)^(36)
2=(1+r/4)^(36)
Take the root of 36 for both sides
2^(1/36)=1+r/4
R= (2^(1/36)-1)×4
R=(2^(1÷36)−1)×4
R=0.0778×100
R=7.78%
Hope it helps!
