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ivanzaharov [21]
3 years ago
14

Your product Belch has an actual market share of 14.2%, and a potential market share of 17.6%. The most likely scenario to expla

in this situation is:
Business
1 answer:
jok3333 [9.3K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: Your budget for sales and promo are excessive, and you reached diminishing returns on your spend.

Explanation:

You can check the options online.

The market share refers to the percentage of total sales that is generated by a company in an industry.

If the potential market share is higher than the actual market share, the reason for this will be due to the fact that the budget for sales and promo are excessive, and you reached diminishing returns on your spend.

You might be interested in
Jordan has the following assets and liabilities:-Two Cars $10,000-House $200,000-Mortgage $100,000-Cash $1,000-Car Loans $3,000-
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

The correct option is B. $109,000; $213,000; $104,000

Explanation:

For computing the wealth, first, we have to compute the assets and liabilities value

So, the assets = Cars + House + cash + checking account balance

                 = $10,000 + $200,000 + $1,000 + $2,000

                 = $213,000

So, the liabilities = Mortgage + car loans + credit card balance

                     = $100,000 + $3,000 + $1,000

                     = $104,000

we apply the accounting equation which equals to

Assets = Liabilities + shareholder equity

And, the wealth equal to

= Assets - Liabilities

= $213,000 - $104,000

= $109,000

Hence, Jordan's wealth is $109,000, the value of Jordan's assets is $213,000, and the value of Jordan's liability is $104,000.

Therefore, the correct option is B. $109,000; $213,000; $104,000

3 0
3 years ago
On June 1, year 2, Oak Corp. granted stock options to certain key employees as additional compensation. The options were for 1,0
Dimas [21]

Answer:

Since the options were granted at an exercise price of $15 when the market value of the shares was $20, total compensation under the intrinsic method would be $5 per share on 1,000 shares or $5,000. Since the options are exercisable on 1/2/X2, the $5,000 in compensation would all be recognized n 20X1.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
merchandise costing 1200 is sold for 2200 on term 2/30,n/60. If the customer pays within the discount period. Prepare the journa
spin [16.1K]

Answer:

The journal entries are as follows:

(a) Accounts receivables [$2,200 - 2%] A/c Dr. $2,156

             To Sales revenue                                              $2,156

(To record the sale)

(b) Cost of Goods Sold A/c Dr. $1,200

          To inventory                                $1,200

(To record the cost of goods sold)

(c) Cash A/c Dr. $2,156

       To Accounts receivables  $2,156

(To record payment within discount term)

3 0
3 years ago
The owner of Grandma's Applesauce is planning to retire after the coming year. She has to repay a loan of $50,000 plus 8 percent
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

Option (B) $5,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Repayment of Loan = $50,000

Interest = 8%

Cash flow             Probability

$65,000                    70%

$45,000                    30%

Tax rate = 0%

Now,

Interest on loan = 8% of $50,000

= $4,000

Expected value of cash flow = ∑[cash flow × Probability ]

= ( 0.7 × $65,000 ) + ( 0.3 × $45,000 )

= $45,500 + $13,500

= $59,000

The owner's expected cash flow after debt service

= Expected value of cash flow - Interest on loan - Repayment of Loan

= $59,000 - $4,000 - $50,000

= $5,000

Hence,

Option (B) $5,000

3 0
3 years ago
The following cost data relate to the manufacturing activities of Chang Company during the just completed year:
Elza [17]

Answer:

Amount of underapplied or overapplied overhead cost for the year

$97000 - Underapplied

Schedule of cost of goods manufactured for the year

Direct Material                                3885000

Direct Labor                                      60000

Overheads                                       376000

Total Manufacturing Costs             4321000

Add Opening Inventory WIP           400000

Less Closing Inventory WIP            (700000)

Cost of Goods Manufactured         4021000

Explanation:

Amount of underapplied or overapplied overhead cost for the year

Underapplied or Overapplied overhead cost =Actual Overhead - Applied Overhead

$473000-$376000= $ 97000

Schedule of cost of goods manufactured for the year

<em>Direct Materials  Calculation  </em>                                  

Opening                                                      200000

Add Purchases                                         4000000

Available                                                    4200000

Less Closing Material                                 300000

Materials Consumed                                  3900000

Less Indirect Materials                                 15000

Direct Materials Consumed                       3885000

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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