It can go into 136 4 times. Just do 136 divided by 34. It's even enough to go into it.
The answer is B.
The only reason it will be 200 is because the numbers 1,2,3,4,5,and 6 are all an option so the probability of 5 is 1/6 and if you multiply 1/6 by 1,200 you will get 200. Hope this helped!
Answer:
The general term for the sequence can be given by the following formula:

Step-by-step explanation:
If the sequence you typed starts with first term 11 and continues with terms 13, 15, 17, 19, We understand that the sequence is formed by adding 2 units to the previous term. So we are in the case of an arithmetic sequence with constant difference (d) = 2, and with first term 11.
Therefore, the nth term of this arithmetic sequence can be expressed by using the general form for an arithmetic sequence as:

Answer:
the answer is 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
4(8-3)
Remember to use PEMDAS if you have to solve :)