Can someone please help
2 answers:
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Answer:
This is the same as writing (n-m)/n
Don't forget about the parenthesis if you go with the second option.
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Explanation:
The probability that she wins is m/n, where m,n are placeholders for positive whole numbers.
For instance, m = 2 and n = 5 leads to m/n = 2/5. This would mean that out of n = 5 chances, she wins m = 2 times.
The probability of her not winning is 1 - (m/n). We subtract the probability of winning from 1 to get the probability of losing.
We could leave the answer like this, but your teacher says that the answer must be "in the form of a combined single fraction".
Doing a bit of algebra would have these steps
and now the expression is one single fraction.
Answer:
False, counterexample below
Step-by-step explanation:
Denote the unit vectors of R^3 by . Now consider
and
. We have that
. Also, the vector
is not a linear combination of
because any linear combination of these two vectors will have third coordinate zero, but v_3 has third coordinate 1 so they can't be equal.
However, the set is not linearly independent, because
is a non-trivial linear combination of these vectors that equals zero.