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Mathematics

1 answer:

Agata [3.3K]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

there are 4 aces in the deck of 52 cards

so the probability to draw one ace is 4/52

if we draw an ace, there are 3 left in 51 cards.

so the next probability will be 3/51

we need to multiply probabilities to know how likely it is that this happens in a row.

for three in a row that's

$\frac{4}{52} \times \frac{3}{51} \times \frac{2}{50}$

rewritten its:

$\frac{4 \times 3 \times 2}{52 \times 51 \times 50}$

we'll see soon why this is easier to write.

we also have to account for the two cards that are no aces. it doesn't matter if the first two cards are no aces, the last two, or any rodney. just the ammount of non-aces is important.

there are 48 non-aces in the deck.

so the probability to draw one of them in the first step is 48/52.

wich each draw the number of cards left in the deck decreases by 1. and depending what we draw, that ammount also decreases.

we draw 5 cards, so we know what the denominators will be. the numerator will be the rest-ammounts of each event, like shown in the complicated fraction above.

let's write it most easily as this:

$\frac{4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 48 \times 47}{52 \times 51 \times 50 \times 49 \times 48}$

this scenario looks like it only describes 3 aces, then two non-aces, but the order of multiplication isn't important. you could put the 48 and 47 to the left, same solution. so this expression represents all permutations of "3 aces when drawing 5 cards", including the two cards that are not aces.

that's why writing it as one convoluted fraction is indeed better and simpler than many fraction multiplied in row.

time to grap a calculator.

our probability for the event is

54144 possible valid outcomes out of

311875200 possible combinations.

luckily the calculator can reduce that to a simpler form of

$\frac{47}{270725}$