Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.
<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>
The formula is:


The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
Considering that there are 4 questions, and each has 5 choices, the parameters are given as follows:
n = 4, p = 1/5 = 0.2.
The probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions is P(X = 1), hence:


0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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Answer:
40 + ( -63) is less
Step-by-step explanation:
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252 is the answer for your question