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FromTheMoon [43]
3 years ago
8

On January 1, 2017, Ayayai Company purchased 8% bonds having a maturity value of $200,000, for $216,849.76. The bonds provide th

e bondholders with a 6% yield. They are dated January 1, 2017, and mature January 1, 2022, with interest receivable January 1 of each year. Ayayai Company uses the effective-interest method to allocate unamortized discount or premium. The bonds are classified in the held-to-maturity category.On January 1, 2017, Ayayai Company purchasedOn January 1, 2017, Ayayai Company purchased Prepare the journal entry at the date of the bond purchase. (Enter answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 2,525.25. Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. If no entry is required, select "No Entry" for the account titles and enter 0 for the amounts.)
Business
1 answer:
Eddi Din [679]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1. 1/01/2017

Dr Bonds receivable 200,000

Dr Premium on bonds receivable 16,849.76

(216,849.76-200,000)

Cr Cash 216,849.76

2. Carrying amount of bonds

1/01/2017 216,849.76

1/01/2018 213,859.76

1/01/2019 210,691.35

1/01/2020 207,332.83

1/01/2021 203,772.8

1/01/2022 200,000

3. 31/12/2017

Dr Interest receivable 16,000

Cr Interest revenue 13,010

Cr Premium on bonds receivable 2,990

Explanation:

1. Preparation of the journal entry at the date of the bond purchase.

1/01/2017

Dr Bonds receivable 200,000

Dr Premium on bonds receivable 16,849.76

(216,849.76-200,000)

Cr Cash 216,849.76

2. Preparation of a bond amortization schedule.

Date Cash received Interest revenue Premium amortized Carrying amount of bonds

1/01/2017 216,849.76

1/01/2018 16,000 13,010 2,990 213,859.76

1/01/2019 16,000 12,831.59 3,168.41 210,691.35

1/01/2020 16,000 12,641.48 3,358.52 207,332.83

1/01/2021 16,000 12,439.97 3,560.03 203,772.8

1/01/2022 16,000 12,227.20 3,772.80 200,000

Workings;

1/01/2018

($200,000*8%)=16,000

($216,849.76*6%)=13,010

(16,000-13,010)=2,990

(216,849.76-2,990)=213,859.76

1/01/2019

($200,000*8%)=16,000

(213,859.76*6%)=12,831.59

(16,000-12,831.59)=3,168.41

(213,859.76-3,168.41)=210,691.35

1/01/2020

($200,000*8%)=16,000

(210,691.35*6%)=12,641.48

(16,000-12,641.48)=3,358.52

(210,691.35-3,358.52)=207,332.83

3.Preparation of the journal entry to record the interest revenue and the amortization on December 31, 2017.

31/12/2017

Dr Interest receivable 16,000

($200,000*8%)

Cr Interest revenue 13,010

($216,849.76*6%)

Cr Premium on bonds receivable 2,990

(16,000-13,010)

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Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

Intrinsic value: 53.41 dollars

Explanation:

First, we use the CAPM model to know the value of the stock

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)  

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Now we need to know the present value of the future dividends:

D0 = 2.8

D1 = D0 x (1+g) = 2.8 * 1.23 = 3.444

D2 3.444 x 1.23 = 4.2361200

The next dividends, which are at perpetuity will we solve using the dividned grow model:

\frac{divends}{return-growth} = Intrinsic \: Value

In this case dividends will be:

4.23612 x 1.07 = 4.5326484

return will be how return given by CAPM and g = 7%

plug this into the Dividend grow model.

\frac{4.5326484}{0.1435 - 0.07} = Intrinsic \: Value

value of the dividends at perpetity: 61.6686857

FInally is important to note this values are calculate in their current year. We must bring them to present day using the present value of a lump sum:

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

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47.16201531

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5 0
3 years ago
What is the total of tim’s liabilities if he has recorded $50,000 in assets and $40,000 equity on a balance sheet?
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Total assets = Total liabilities + Total stockholders' equity

Total liabilities = Total assets - Total stockholders' equity

Total liabilities = $50,000 - $40,000

Total liabilities = $10,000

Hence, the total of Tim's liabilities is $10,000.

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Liability can be compared to assets. Debt is what you owe or owe. An asset is something you own or owe. In general, liability is an obligation between one party and another that has not yet been exempted or paid. In the accounting world, financial liabilities are also obligatory but are more likely to be defined by past commerce, events, sales, asset or service exchanges, or those that will generate economic benefits in the future.

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7 0
2 years ago
During 2021, its first year of operations, a company provides services on account of $255,000. By the end of 2021, cash collecti
ryzh [129]

Answer:

Dr Bad Debt Expense 16,120

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts 16,120

Explanation:

Based on the information given we were told that the company provides services of the amount of $255,000 in which the cash collections on the accounts was the amount of $131,000 and 13% of accounts receivable will be uncollectible which means that the adjusting Journal entry for uncollectible accounts on December 31, 2021 will be :

Preparation of the adjusting Journal entry for uncollectible accounts on December 31, 2021.

December 31,2021

Dr Bad Debt Expense 16,120

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts 16,120

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$124,000*13%

=$16,120

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3 years ago
When cash outflows temporarily exceed cash inflows, banks are most likely to experience:
Musya8 [376]
C. a negative duration on it's assets.
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3 years ago
The _____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date.
muminat

Answer:

The correct answer is A that is late start date.

Explanation:

Late start date is the filed which comprise of the latest date on which a task could be started without delaying the finish of the project.

The date is grounded on the date when the task is started and also on the late start of the task, late finish dates of the tasks predecessor and the successor as well and also on other constraints.

So, the late start date for the activity is the latest possible time.

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3 years ago
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