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3 years ago

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Consider an urn initially containing n balls, numbered 1 through n, and suppose that balls will be randomly drawn from the urn,

one by one, and without replacement (so that after n draws, it is empty). Letting X be the number of successes that will occur, where a success is considered to occur on the ith draw if the ball obtained is numbered i or smaller, give the expected value of X. (E.g., if n = 5, and the balls are drawn in the order 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, then x = 3, because the 2nd, 4th, and 5th draws result in successes, but the 1st and 3rd draws don’t.)

1 answer:

kifflom [539]3 years ago

7 0

If balls were drawn from X to the other X, that how you find yo answer

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1) Inverse function: $f^{-1}(x)=g(x)=\frac{x+4}{3}$

2) $f(1) = -1, g(-1) = 1$

3) $f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x$

Step-by-step explanation:

1)

In this first method, we want to find the inverse function of $f(x)$ .

The original function is:

$f(x) = 3x-4$

We rewrite it as

$y=3x-4$

We swap the name of the variables:

$x=3y-4$

Adding +4 on both sides:

$x+4=3y-4+4\\x+4=3y$

And dividing by 3 on both sides:

$y=\frac{x+4}{3}$

which is identical to $g(x)$ :

$g(x)=\frac{x+4}{3}$

2)

In this second method, we want to use the output of one function as input to the other function, and show that the output value is equal to the imput value.

We start using the function

$f(x)=3x-4$

We choose $x=1$ . We find:

$f(1)=3(1)-4=3-4=-1$

Now we use this output value as input in the function

$g(x)=\frac{x+4}{3}$

Substituting $x=-1$ ,

$g(-1)=\frac{-1+4}{3}=\frac{3}{3}=1$

So, the final output value (1) is equal to the input value (1).

3)

Here we want to verify that the two are inverse functions by showing that

$f(g(x))=x$

We have

$f(x)=3x-4\\g(x)=\frac{x+4}{3}$

Substituting g(x) into f(x),

$f(g(x))=3g(x)-4 = 3(\frac{x+4}{3})-4=(x+4)-4=x$

Viceversa, we want to show that

$g(f(x))=x$

Substituting g(x) into f(x), we get

$g(f(x))=\frac{f(x)+4}{3}=\frac{(3x-4)+4}{3}=\frac{3x-4+4}{3}=\frac{3x}{3}=x$

So, the two functions are one the inverse of the other.

Learn more about inverse functions:

brainly.com/question/1632445

brainly.com/question/2456302

brainly.com/question/3225044

#LearnwithBrainly

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3 years ago

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RideAnS [48]

Answers:

System 1: x = 3 and y = -5
System 2: x = 1 and y = 2

==========================================================

Explanation:

For now, let's focus on system 1.

We have identical copies of "2y" in each equation, which means that if we were to subtract the equations straight down, then the y terms cancel out. That allows us to solve for x.

The x terms subtract to 7x-x = 6x
The y terms subtract to 0 and go away
The right hand sides subtract to 11 minus (-7) = 11-(-7) = 11+7 = 18

After doing those subtractions, we have the new equation 6x = 18 which solves to x = 3. Divide both sides by 6 to isolate x.

Once we know x, we can find out y.

7x+2y = 11

7(3)+2y = 11

21+2y = 11

2y = 11-21

2y = -10

y = -10/2

y = -5

or we can say

x+2y = -7

3+2y = -7

2y = -7-3

2y = -10

y = -10/2

y = -5

We should lead to the same y value either way. This helps confirm we have the correct x value.

Overall, the solution to system 1 is (x,y) = (3, -5)

----------------------------

Now onto system 2.

Unfortunately, we don't have identical y terms this time. But what we can do is double everything in the second equation to go from -x+y = 1 to -2x+2y = 2.

The new equivalent system is

$\begin{cases}7x+2y = 11\\-2x+2y = 2\end{cases}$

Now we have the same situation as before: Subtract straight down, solve for x.

The x terms subtract to 7x-(-2x) = 7x+2x = 9x
The y terms go away when subtracting
The right hand sides subtract to 11-2 = 9

So we have 9x = 9 and that solves to x = 1.

We'll use this x to find the y value.

7x+2y = 11

7(1)+2y = 11

7+2y = 11

2y = 11-7

2y = 4

y = 4/2

y = 2

Or you could pick on the second equation

-x+y = 1

-1+y = 1

y = 1+1

y = 2

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2 years ago