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According to the probabilities given, it is found that the correct option regarding the independence of the events is given by:
No, P(carry cash) != P(carry cash|have children).
<h3>What is the probability of independent events?</h3>If two events, A and B, are independent, we have that:
Which also means that:
In this problem, we have that:
- 62% carry cash on a regular basis, hence P(cash) = 0.62.
- 46% has children, hence P(children) = 0.46.
- Of the 46% who have children, 85% carry cash on a regular basis, hence P(cash|children) = 0.85.
Since P(carry cash) != P(carry cash|have children), they are not independent.
More can be learned about the probability of independent events at brainly.com/question/25715148
Answer:ok
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