No it isn't.
Explanation:
x/y * y = (y-6) * y
x = y^2 - 6y
A function gives just one y for every x
In this case there will always be 2 y's for every x
Example:
y can be
y = 6
or
y =−6
(0,-6) & (0,6)
Answer:
H. 1/9.
Step-by-step explanation:
The area of a circle is calculated by solving for π
.
The smallest circle has an area of π
= π * 1 = π.
The middle ring will then have an area of π
- π = π * 4 - π = 4π - π = 3π.
The largest ring will then have an area of π
- π
= 9π - 4π = 5π.
5π + 3π + π = 9π
So, the probability of hitting the innermost circle will be π / 9π = 1 / 9.
Your answer is H. 1/9.
Hope this helps!
Perpendicular lines have opposite reciprocal slopes.
x = 4 has a slope of undefined since it is a vertical line.
It's undefined because 1/0 = undefined. We can't divide by 0.
The opposite reciprical of 1/0 is -0/1, which equals to 0.
Any line with a slope of 0 is:
y = 0x + b
y = b
This line goes through the point of (2, 6).
Since the equation starts with y = something, we have to use the y-value of the point it goes through. The point is in the form of (x, y).
6 is in the y-value.
The equation of the perpendicular line is y = 6.
Answer:
yes... i ate..... stuff...
Step-by-step explanation:
