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nordsb [41]
2 years ago
14

On January 1, 2021, Bombay Corporation signed a five-year noncancelable lease for equipment. The terms of the lease called for B

ombay to make annual payments of $180,000 at the beginning of each year for five years with title passing to Bombay at the end of this period. The equipment has an estimated useful life of 7 years and no salvage value. Bombay uses the straight-line method of depreciation for all of its fixed assets. Bombay accordingly accounts for this lease transaction as a finance lease. The lease payments were determined to have a present value of $750,578 at an effective interest rate of 10%.
Required:
In 2022, Cullumber should record interest expense of:______
Business
1 answer:
tresset_1 [31]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

In 2022, Cullumber should record interest expense of $57,057.80.

Explanation:

The interest expense can be calculated using the following formula:

Interest expense = (Present value of lease payments - Annual payments at the beginning of each year) * Effective interest rate .................... (1)

Where:

Annual payments at the beginning of each year = $180,000

Present value of lease payments = $750,578

Effective interest rate = 10%

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Interest expense = ($750,578 - $180,000) * 10% = $57,057.80

Therefore, Cullumber should record interest expense of $57,057.80 in 2022.

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uppose your firm has decided to use a divisional WACC approach to analyze projects. The firm currently has four divisions, A thr
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

WACC for A: 9.05%

WACC for B: 9.50%

WACC for C: 12.20%

WACC for D: 12.65%

Explanation:

WACC for a division will be equal: Percentage of Debt in capital employed by the Division x Cost of Debt + Percentage of Equity in capital employed by the Division x Cost of equity = 50% x 6% + 50% x ( Risk free rate + Beta of each Division x Risk premium) = 3% + 50% x ( 4% + beta of each Division x Risk premium)

Risk premium for the 4 Divisions is equal to (Cost of equity for the whole firm - Risk free rate) / beta = 9%

Thus WACC for a division will be equal:  3% + 50% x ( 4% + beta of each Division x 9%).

Substitute beta of each Division from A to D provided in the question, we have: WACC for A: 9.05%; WACC for B: 9.5%; WACC for C: 12.2%; WACC for D: 12.65%.

7 0
3 years ago
What is the logic behind co-locating purchasing personnel with internal customers?
almond37 [142]
There are certain advantages that the organization can understand from co-locating <span>purchasing personnel with internal customers</span>. The primary huge advantage is low expenses of task. In addition, the organization will give enhanced administrations to the organization since the organization will distribute to each customer a faculty in charge of giving them the administrations they require. This additionally has an arrangement of getting a great administration by the clients since they get customized treatments. The most noteworthy advantage related with this is the organization will improve its reputation and draw in various customers.
6 0
3 years ago
Lucy and Fred want to begin saving for their baby's college education. They estimate that they will need $120,000 in eighteen ye
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

$4,265.55

Explanation:

Future value = $120,000

Interest rate (i) = 5%

Annual deposit = ?

Time period (n) = 18 year

Since deposit are to be made at the beginning of each year, hence the relevant factor table to be used is future value annuity due factor table.

Future value = Annual deposit x future value annuity due factor (i%, n)

120,000 = Annual deposit x FVADF (5%, 18period)

120,000 = Annual deposit x 28.13238

Annual deposit = 120,000/28.13238

=$4,265.547

=$4,265.55

4 0
3 years ago
The Nixon Corporation’s common stock has a beta of 1.3. If the risk-free rate is 4.4 percent and the expected return on the mark
Xelga [282]

Answer:

11.68%

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

= 4.4% + 1.3 × (10% - 4.4%)

= 4.4% + 1.3 × 5.6%

= 4.4% + 7.28%

= 11.68%

The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)  is also called market risk premium

8 0
3 years ago
This question explores the calculation of the unemployment rate. You will be provided some imperfect employment data for four di
Alik [6]

Answer:

Unemployment rate= 0.13= 13%

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Of these 95 individuals, 75 are in the labor force and 65 are employed.

<u>To calculate the unemployment rate, we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

Unemployment rate= unmeployed population / labor force

Unemployment rate= 10/75

Unemployment rate= 0.13

7 0
3 years ago
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