Answer:
m∠ABD = m∠CBE ⇒ by subtracting a common angle from the given angles
Step-by-step explanation:
∵ m∠ABE = m∠CBD
∵ m∠ABD = m∠ABD + m∠DBE
∵ m∠CBD = m∠CBE + m∠EBD
∵ ∠EBD is common angle between them
∴ m∠ABD = m∠CBE
The first thing we should know in this case is that by definition the flow of liquid is given by:
Q = V / t
Where,
V: volume
t: time
The volume of the cone is given by:
V = (pi * r ^ 2 * h) / (3)
Where,
r: radio
h: height
Substituting the values we have:
V = (3.14 * ((3) ^ 2) * 7) / (3)
V = 65.94 in ^ 3
We now turn off the time of the flow equation:
t = V / Q
Substituting values:
t = (65.94) / (14)
t = 4.71 minutes
Answer:
It will take for all the liquid in the funnel to pass through the nozzle about:
t = 4.71 minutes
Answer:
![Var(X) = E(X^2) -[E(X)]^2 = 4.97 -(1.61)^2 =2.3779](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28X%29%20%3D%20E%28X%5E2%29%20-%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20%3D%204.97%20-%281.61%29%5E2%20%3D2.3779)
And the deviation would be:
Step-by-step explanation:
For this case we have the following distribution given:
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
P(X) 0.3 0.25 0.2 0.12 0.07 0.04 0.02
For this case we need to find first the expected value given by:
And replacing we got:
Now we can find the second moment given by:
And replacing we got:
And the variance would be given by:
And the deviation would be:
We are given the following conversion factor:
We are asked to determine how many miles are 140 km. To do that we use the quotient of the conversion factor where the unit we want to convert to is in the numerator and the given unit in the denominator. Since we want to find miles we use the following quotient:
Solving the operations we get:
Answer:
47
Step-by-step explanation:
The number that should go after 23 is 47.
The pattern seems to be (n * 2) + 1, where n is the value of the previous number.
We start with the number 5:
5
(5 * 2) + 1 = 11
11
(11 * 2) + 1 = 23
23
(23 * 2) + 1 = 47
47
... and so on
The pattern should continue as follows.
Hope this helps!
