I need help pls its due in 40 minutes
1 answer:
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First, think this through. If you are 23 miles from Sacramento, and 110 miles from Oakland (I am assuming it is miles since you didn't specify *cough cough*) then the two cities are 133 miles apart (also assuming you are in between them)
so, we use the midpoint formula to find our position
and get 66.5 miles from both Sacramento and Oakland.
Next, we already know the sign is 23 miles away from Sacramento so we can use that distance and our position to figure out how far away the sign is. We use absolute values because distance is always positive.
so we get
to double check, use the sign's distance from Oakland.
so, we are 43.5 miles from the sign!
hope this helps
so, we use the midpoint formula to find our position
and get 66.5 miles from both Sacramento and Oakland.
Next, we already know the sign is 23 miles away from Sacramento so we can use that distance and our position to figure out how far away the sign is. We use absolute values because distance is always positive.
so we get
to double check, use the sign's distance from Oakland.
so, we are 43.5 miles from the sign!
hope this helps
Answer:
And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729
And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774
As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Alternative 1
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:
And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729
Alternative 2
Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:
And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774
As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.