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3 years ago

PLS HELP! find the volume.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Andre45 [30]3 years ago

7 0

Don’t do that it’s a scam and a virus

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You invest $1,100 in an account that has an annual interest rate of 2.1%, compounded continuously. How much money will be in the

uranmaximum [27]

$1100 x 1.021^7 = $1272 (whole number.)

the $1100 is the original amount of money put in the bank with the 1.021 being the interest rate. this was put to the power of 7 to represent the years the money will be in the account.

6 0

3 years ago

Find the sum of the vectors <7,−2> and <1,8>. Then find the magnitude and direction of the resultant vector. Round a

Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

The sum of the vectors is <8 , 6>

The magnitude of the resultant vector is 10

The direction of the resultant vector is 37°

The answer is the 1st answer: <8 , 6> ; 10 ; 37°

Step-by-step explanation:

* Lets explain how to solve the problem

∵ The first vector is <7 , -2>

∵ The second vector is <1 , 8>

∴ The sum of the 2 vectors = <7 , -2> + <1 , 8>

∴ Their sum = <7 + 1 , -2 + 8> = <8 , 6>

* The sum of the vectors is <8 , 6>

- The magnitude of the resultant vector = √(x² + y²)

∵ x = 8 and y = 6

∴ The magnitude of the resultant vector = √(8² + ²)

∴ The magnitude of the resultant vector = √(36 + 64) = √100 = 10

* The magnitude of the resultant vector is 10

- The direction of the vector = tan^-1 (y/x)

∵ x = 8 and y = 6

∴ The direction of the vector = tan^-1 (6/8) = 36.869 ≅ 37°

* The direction of the resultant vector is 37°

3 0

3 years ago

Hoose the correct answer.

jarptica [38.1K]

2) Music to my ears
3)A breeze
4)clear skies
5)worm out
6)worm out
7)sail through
Hope this helped :)

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A casino wants to offer a new game with (potentially) spectacular prizes:The player flips a fair coin until they flip heads.The

MissTica

Answer:

The casino should charge for this game at least $1 to break even.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can define the prize function as

$M(n)=2^{ n+1}$

where M is the prize money and n is the number of tails in continous flips.

The probability of n consecutive tails can be calculated as $p^n=0.5^n$ . The probaility of getting a head after the n consecutive tails is $p=0.5$ , so the probability of having n consecutive tails and a head is $p^{n+1}=0.5^{n+1}$

Then we can calculate the expected value of M as

$E(M)=p_i*M_i=(0.5)^{n+1}*2^{n+1}=1^{n+1}=1$

The expected money prize for this game is $1, so the casino should charge to play at least $1 to break even.

4 0

4 years ago

Please help me with this math problem

kirza4 [7]

The answer would be 2/4

6 0

3 years ago