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3 years ago

What is the constant rate???

Mathematics

1 answer:

Dmitry [639]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

The constant rate is 4

Step-by-step explanation:

40 ÷ 10 = 4

80 ÷ 20 = 4

120 ÷ 30 = 4

160 ÷ 40 = 4

They all equal 4 so that is the constant rate.

Brainliest???

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Can someone please answer this???? ASAP

timofeeve [1]

Answer:

A. $y=-\dfrac{8}{7}x-\dfrac{18}{7}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Let $y=mx+b$ be the equation of the perpendicular line.

Two perpendicular lines have slopes with product equal to -1. The slope of the given line is $\frac{7}{8}$ Hence,

$\dfrac{7}{8}\cdot m=-1\\ \\m=-\dfrac{8}{7}$

is the slope of needed line.

This line passes through the point (-4,2), so its coordinates satisfy the equation:

$2=-\dfrac{8}{7}\cdot (-4)+b\\ \\b=2-\dfrac{32}{7}=-\dfrac{18}{7}$

Therefore, the equation of the line is

$y=-\dfrac{8}{7}x-\dfrac{18}{7}$

7 0

3 years ago

Need help please, also about probabilities

liberstina [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Good evening ,

_______________

a) p(rat)=1-(0,35+0,4+0,1)

b) p(cat ∪ hamster)=0,35+0,1

c) p(dog then dog)= (0,4)²

8 0

3 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

3 years ago

You are saving money for a summer camp that costs $1800. You have saved $500 so far, and you have 14 more weeks to save the tota

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$92.86

Step-by-step explanation:

Since it's AT LEAST 1800, the inequality sign would be ≥ 1800

Equation:

500 + 14x ≥ 1800

14x ≥ 1800 - 500

14x ≥ 1300

x ≥ 92.86

6 0

3 years ago

5x+9=2x+7+3x-15

andrew11 [14]

Answer:

No Solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

5x + 9 = 2x + 7 + 3x - 15 Equation

Step 2:

5x + 9 = 5x - 8 Add and Subtract

Step 3:

9 = - 8 Subtract 5x on both sides

Answer:

9 ≠ - 8 9 cannot equal - 8

Hope This Helps :)

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers