Explanation
Problem #2
We must find the solution to the following system of inequalities:

(1) We solve for y the first inequality:

Now, we multiply both sides of the inequality by (-1), this changes the signs on both sides and inverts the inequality symbol:

The solution to this inequality is the set of all the points (x, y) over the line:

This line has:
• slope m = 3/2,
,
• y-intercept b = -2.
(2) We solve for y the second inequality:

The solution to this inequality is the set of all the points (x, y) below the line:

This line has:
• slope m = -1/3,
,
• y-intercept b = 2.
(3) Plotting the lines of points (1) and (2), and painting the region:
• over the line from point (1),
,
• and below the line from point (2),
we get the following graph:
Answer
The points that satisfy both inequalities are given by the intersection of the blue and red regions:
Answer:
6y^2+7
Step-by-step explanation:
when you put in the two for y you get tour answer. i tried to simplify it down to the simplest form.
Answer:
You would figure this out by the method of substitution
Step-by-step explanation:
a= -3/2
b= 5/4
c=7/8
a(b+c) = a(b)+a(c)
Substitute
-3/2(5/4 +7/8) = -3/2(5/4)+-3/2(7/8)
-51/16 =-51/16
Answer: 40 divided by 6 is equal to 6 with a remainder of 4: 40 / 6 = 6 R.
Step-by-step explanation:Start by setting it up with the divisor 6 on the left side and the dividend 40 on the right side like this:
6 ⟌ 4 0
The divisor (6) goes into the first digit of the dividend (4), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0
6 ⟌ 4 0
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.
0
6 ⟌ 4 0
0
Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (4 - 0 = 4) and write the answer below.
0
6 ⟌ 4 0
- 0
4
Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (0) like this:
0
6 ⟌ 4 0
- 0
4 0
The divisor (6) goes into the bottom number (40), 6 time(s). Therefore, put 6 on top:
0 6
6 ⟌ 4 0
- 0
4 0
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 6 = 36) and write that answer at the bottom:
0 6
6 ⟌ 4 0
- 0
4 0
3 6
Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (40 - 36 = 4) and write the answer at the bottom.
0 6
6 ⟌ 4 0
- 0
4 0
- 3 6
4
You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend. The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number. Therefore, the answer to 40 divided by 6 calculated using Long Division is: 6
4 Remainder