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RUDIKE [14]
2 years ago
12

suppose 7,500 is invested at 1.5%, compounded continuously. what will the account balance be in 16 years?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
viktelen [127]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

\boxed {\boxed {\sf \$9,534.37}}

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for continuously compounded is:

A=Pe^{rt}

where P is the principal amount, r is the interest rate as a decimal, and t is the amount of time.

The principal amount is $7,500 and time is 16 years. The interest rate is 1.5%. Convert this to a decimal- divide by 100 or move the decimal places two spots to the left.

  • 1.5/100= 0.015         or           1.5 --> 0.15 --> 0.015

Now we know all the values and can substitute them into the formula.

P= 7500 \\r= 0.015 \\t= 16

A= 7500(e^{0.015*16})

Solve the multiplication in the exponent first.

A= 7500(e^{24})

Solve the exponent.

A= 7500 (1.27124915)

A=9534.368627

Round to the nearest cent (hundredth place). The 8 in the thousandth place tells us to the round the 6 to a 7.

A=9534.37

The account balance will be <u>$9,534.37</u> after 16 years.

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To solve a system of inequalities so you can graph it how do you change these two equations into something like the two that are
Zigmanuir [339]
Explanation

Problem #2

We must find the solution to the following system of inequalities:

\begin{gathered} 3x-2y\leq4, \\ x+3y\leq6. \end{gathered}

(1) We solve for y the first inequality:

-2y\leq4-3x.

Now, we multiply both sides of the inequality by (-1), this changes the signs on both sides and inverts the inequality symbol:

\begin{gathered} 2y\ge-4+3x, \\ y\ge\frac{3}{2}x-2. \end{gathered}

The solution to this inequality is the set of all the points (x, y) over the line:

y=\frac{3}{2}x-2.

This line has:

• slope m = 3/2,

,

• y-intercept b = -2.

(2) We solve for y the second inequality:

\begin{gathered} x+3y\leq6, \\ 3y\leq6-x, \\ y\leq-\frac{1}{3}x+2. \end{gathered}

The solution to this inequality is the set of all the points (x, y) below the line:

y=-\frac{1}{3}x+2.

This line has:

• slope m = -1/3,

,

• y-intercept b = 2.

(3) Plotting the lines of points (1) and (2), and painting the region:

• over the line from point (1),

,

• and below the line from point (2),

we get the following graph:

Answer

The points that satisfy both inequalities are given by the intersection of the blue and red regions:

8 0
1 year ago
The water department checks the city water supply on a regular basis for contaminants such as xylenes. the water department take
Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

Its A

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the expression below when y=2 6y^2 +8y-9
Annette [7]

Answer:

6y^2+7

Step-by-step explanation:

when you put in the two for y you get tour answer. i tried to simplify it down to the simplest form.

8 0
2 years ago
If a=-3/2 b=5/4 and c=7/8 prove that a(b+c) = ab +ac.<br> Thank you in advance
scoundrel [369]

Answer:

You would figure this out by the method of substitution

Step-by-step explanation:

a= -3/2

b= 5/4

c=7/8

a(b+c) = a(b)+a(c)

Substitute

-3/2(5/4 +7/8) = -3/2(5/4)+-3/2(7/8)

-51/16 =-51/16

8 0
3 years ago
40 divided by 6 using integer division
Nitella [24]

Answer: 40 divided by 6 is equal to 6 with a remainder of 4: 40 / 6 = 6 R.

Step-by-step explanation:Start by setting it up with the divisor 6 on the left side and the dividend 40 on the right side like this:

           

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

The divisor (6) goes into the first digit of the dividend (4), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

       0    

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (4 - 0 = 4) and write the answer below.

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4    

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (0) like this:

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

The divisor (6) goes into the bottom number (40), 6 time(s). Therefore, put 6 on top:

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 6 = 36) and write that answer at the bottom:

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

      3 6  

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (40 - 36 = 4) and write the answer at the bottom.

       0 6  

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

     - 3 6  

         4  

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend. The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number. Therefore, the answer to 40 divided by 6 calculated using Long Division is: 6

4 Remainder

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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