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Gennadij [26K]
3 years ago
13

Which statement does not describe central bank monetary policy action? Central bank action should be humble because of the risk

that their actions can create as much or more economic instability as they resolve. Monetary policy has little effect in the immediate future. Central bank action should be aggressive because of the risk that their actions can create more economic instability by not acting. The primary effects of monetary policy are felt perhaps 1 to 3 years in the future.
Business
1 answer:
Andrew [12]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Central bank action should be aggressive because the risk of their actions can create more economic instability by not acting.

Explanation:

Monetary policy can be defined as the actions (macroeconomic policies) adopted and undertaken by the central bank of a particular country to control the money supply and interest rates so as to boost or enhance economic growth. The central bank uses monetary policies to manage inflation, economic growth through long-term interest rates and level of unemployment in a country. In order to boost economic growth, monetary policy is used to increase money supply (liquidity) while it is also used to prevent inflation by reducing money supply.

Hence, the statement which does not describe central bank monetary policy action is that; central bank's action should be aggressive because the risk of their actions can create more economic instability by not acting.

This is completely false.

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Can South Africa afford to have a totally free trade with the rest of the world?
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In the economy of Mankewistan in 2015, consumption was $6000, exports were $1000, GDP was $10,000, government purchases were $18
hodyreva [135]

Answer:

$2,400

Explanation:

We know that

GDP = Consumption + Investment + Government purchase + Net exports

where,  

Net exports = Exports - imports

                    = $1,000 - $1,200

                    = -$200

Now the investment is

$10,000 =$6,000 + Investment + $1,800 - $200

$10,000 = $7,600 + Investment

So, the investment equal to

= $2,400

6 0
3 years ago
Classify the following as either a revenue or a capital expenditure.
Naily [24]

Answer and Explanation:

The capital expenditure is the expenditure which is held for a capital asset i.e fixed assets for improving life, production, etc. It is a one-time expenditure  

While on the other hand the revenue expenditure is the expenditure which is incurred on daily basis i.e frequently like repairs, maintenance

So based on the above, the classification is as follows  

a. Capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Revenue expenditure  

d. Capital expenditure

4 0
3 years ago
Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
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