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Gennadij [26K]
3 years ago
13

Which statement does not describe central bank monetary policy action? Central bank action should be humble because of the risk

that their actions can create as much or more economic instability as they resolve. Monetary policy has little effect in the immediate future. Central bank action should be aggressive because of the risk that their actions can create more economic instability by not acting. The primary effects of monetary policy are felt perhaps 1 to 3 years in the future.
Business
1 answer:
Andrew [12]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Central bank action should be aggressive because the risk of their actions can create more economic instability by not acting.

Explanation:

Monetary policy can be defined as the actions (macroeconomic policies) adopted and undertaken by the central bank of a particular country to control the money supply and interest rates so as to boost or enhance economic growth. The central bank uses monetary policies to manage inflation, economic growth through long-term interest rates and level of unemployment in a country. In order to boost economic growth, monetary policy is used to increase money supply (liquidity) while it is also used to prevent inflation by reducing money supply.

Hence, the statement which does not describe central bank monetary policy action is that; central bank's action should be aggressive because the risk of their actions can create more economic instability by not acting.

This is completely false.

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Assume the following data: total current assets = $852; total current liabilities = $406; long-term debt = $442. calculate net w
igor_vitrenko [27]

Total current assets = $852;

Total current liabilities = $406;

Long-term debt = $442.

net working capital  is $446.

<h3>What is the net working capital formula?</h3>

Net working capital = current assets (less cash) – current liabilities (less debt)

<h3>What is the difference between net working capital and working capital?</h3>

When it comes to business finance, the terms "working capital" and "net working capital" are often used interchangeably. However, there is a big difference between the two concepts. Working capital is a measure of a company's short-term liquidity, while net working capital is a measure of a company's overall liquidity.

To lean more about net working capital, refer

brainly.com/question/26214959

#SPJ4

Complete Question is,

A. $446

B. $852

C. $410

D. $4

3 0
1 year ago
At a recent staff meeting, the vice president of marketing appeared confused. The controller had assured him that the parent com
hammer [34]

Answer:

The accountant might be having issues with consolidating the reports of the individual subsidiary.

Explanation:

Below are appropriate responses:

(1) The accounting policies, principles adopted by each subsidiary might be different, hence this could lead to discrepancies and readjustments of the report by the controller.

(2) In order to ensure fair presentation and accuracy of financial information of the subsidiaries, the controller, might need to look over the financial statements.

(3) If the subsidiaries are foreign subsidiaries, the controller would need to translate the financial information, using the functional currency.

(4) Where, they are intra-group transactions (goods in transit, cash in transit, intra group sales and transfers), the controller would need to make adjustments of those transactions .

6 0
3 years ago
When the risks of the individual components of a project’s cash flows are different, an acceptable procedure to evaluate these c
maxonik [38]
The answer would be the first one for sure
3 0
3 years ago
Question 2 of 8
sveta [45]

Answer:

This type of income is known as non-operating income in the financial statements

Explanation:

Non-operating income, as the world implies, is the income that a firm earns from activities that are not related to its main economic activity. An example would be a mall, whose main activity is the rental and management of commercial real estate, earning some income from short-term investments in the secondary market. This interest would be reported as non-operating income, and would be treated as such for financial, accounting, and tax purposes.

6 0
2 years ago
Under the allowance method, bad debts expense is recorded with an adjustment at the end of each accounting period that debits th
Crank

Answer:

Dr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts...1,200

Cr. Accounts Receivable....................................1,200

Explanation:

When a specific customer's account is identified as uncollectible, the journal entry to write off the account is:

A credit to Accounts Receivable (to remove the amount that will not be collected)

A debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts (to reduce the Allowance balance that was previously established)

Therefore the JOURNAL ENTRIES for the $1,200 uncollectible debt will be

Dr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts...1,200

Cr. Accounts Receivable....................................1,200

8 0
3 years ago
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