Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
A decrease in the money supply would reduce the availability of credit in the market. The money supply curve will shift to the left. This would further cause the interest rate to increase.
This increase in the interest rate would increase the cost of borrowing. As a result, the cost of borrowing will increase. This will cause the planned investment to decline.
Since investment expenditure is a component of aggregate demand, a decline in the investment will cause the aggregate demand to decrease as well.
When marketing managers looks for a relationship between past sales and one or more independent variables, such as population, per capita income, or gross domestic product, they are engaging in regression analysis.
<u>Explanation:</u>
An effective mathematical formalism which enables one to analyze the interaction among two or more interest factors is understood as a regression analysis. While there are several forms of regression analysis, they all analyze the effect of one or more independent variables on a dependent variable at their source.
The linear association among two variables is defined using correlation. Regression is then used to match the best line and predict one variable based on another variable. Regression, then, represents the effect on the dependent variable of the unit shift in the independent variable.
Answer:
In order to find the present value of the bond we have to calculate the present value of investment A and subtract is from 1529. We can find the present value of A by discounting all its cash flows.
As the first cash flow is received today and the last will be received 3 years form now there will be a total of 4 cash flows
1) 218.19 (Will not be discounted as we are receiving it today in the present)
2) 218.19/1.0987 (Discount by 1 year as cash will be received in 1 year)
3) 218.19/1.0987^2 (Discount by 2 years as cash will be received in 2 years)
4) 218.19/ 1.0987^3 (Discount by 3 years as cash will be received in 3 years)
= 218.19 + 198.58 + 180.74+ 164.51 = 762.02
PV of Bond = 1529-762.09= 766.91
Semi annual coupons mean 2 payments a year. Bond B matures in 23 years which means a total of 46 payments (23*2). N=46. A coupon rate of 6.4 percent means that the bond pays $64 (0.064*1000) each year. $64 divided by 2 is 32 which is the amount of each semi annual payment Arjen receives. Pv= 766.91 FV = 1000
In a financial calculator put
PV= -766.91
N= 46
FV=1000
PMT= 32
and compute I
I is 4.38 and we will multiply it by 2 because the payments are semi annual. So we will get an I of 8.76
YTM= 0.0876
Explanation:
Answer:
A. The government should implement subsidies as they would help domestic businesses be able to afford to lower the prices of their goods and thus become more competitive.
Explanation:
The government adoption of subsidies in order to support domestic telecommunication is the most effective solution in the long run. Domestic firms will be able to compete with lower prices as the cost and expenses structure would have a lighter burden over revenue.
Answer:
The current price of Hubbard's common stock is <u>$25.50</u>.
Explanation:
This can be calculated using the Gordon growth model (GGM) formula that assumes growth is dividend will be constant as follows:
P = D1/(r - g) ............................ (1)
Where,
P = Current stock price = ?
D1 = Next dividend = D0 * (1 + g) = $1.50 * (1 + 2%) = $1.53
r = required return = 8%, or 0.08
g = growth rate = 2%, or 0.02
Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:
P = $1.53 / (0.08 - 0.02) = $25.50
Therefore, the current price of Hubbard's common stock is <u>$25.50</u>.