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Ne4ueva [31]
3 years ago
6

4. Write as a fraction in simplest form: 38 minutes to 12 minutes

Mathematics
1 answer:
yanalaym [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

3 ⅙

Step-by-step explanation:

38 and 12’s common factor would be 2. Now the fraction is 19/6.

How many 6’s can fit into 19? 3. With a remainder of 1 we have:

3 ⅙

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Points!! Help PLEASE!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! I've been stumped forever!:( Point estimate? Poll's margin of error? Fill in the blanks:
Brut [27]
The point estimate is the mid-point of the interval:
\frac{.35+.43}{2} = \frac{.78}{2} = 0.39

The margin of error is the difference between the endpoints of the interval and the mid-point.
0.43 - 0.39 = 0.04 = 4\%
8 0
3 years ago
Which figure could be the result of dilating this triangle with a scale factor greater than 1?
Leviafan [203]

Answer:

5+

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
76%
topjm [15]

Answer:

Mode = 7

Median = 6

Mean = 5.2

Range = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Mode:

The most repeated number is 7 (thrice).

Median:

First, arrange them in order.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 7, 7, 8, 8

The two middle numbers are 5 and 7. Find their average.

(5 + 7)/2 = 6

Mean:

(3+7+2+4+7+5+7+1+8+8)/10 = 5.2

Range:

Largest number - smallest number

8 - 1 = 7

Hope this helps!

5 0
3 years ago
Given f(x)=2x+1 find the value of k so that the graph is f(x)+k
luda_lava [24]
Where's the graph?  Insufficient info here to enable us to answer this question.
If possible take a photo of the original problem and upload the image to Brainly.
8 0
3 years ago
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