Please no fakes this is the last of my points please try really hard to figure out this problem. if you don't get it go to anoth
er person question then answer it please just dont say idk. im beggin you!!! :(
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I have an expression
floating around in my head; let's see if it makes sense.
The variance of binary valued random variable b that comes up 1 with probability p (so has mean p) is
That's for an individual sample. For the observed average we divide by n, and for the standard deviation we take the square root:
Plugging in the numbers,
One standard deviation of the average is almost 2% so a 27% outcome was 3/1.9 = 1.6 standard deviations from the mean, corresponding to a two sided probability of a bit bigger than 10% of happening by chance.
So this is borderline suspect; most surveys will include a two sigma margin of error, say plus or minus 4 percent here, and the results were within those bounds.