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vekshin1
3 years ago
11

The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 was formed to: Group of answer choices Forbid combinations in restraint of trade and monopoliz

ing. Set enhanced standards for all U.S. public company boards, management and public accounting firms. Limit the formation of runaway shop agreements Forbid employers from interacting with workers in the private sector who create labor unions
Business
1 answer:
lorasvet [3.4K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Forbid combinations in restraint of trade and monopolizing.

Explanation:

The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 is mainly aimed at preventing anti competitive agreements and unilateral conduct by a group of businesses aligning with one another. Such alignment results in restraint of trade and monopoly.

This Act enables the Department of Justice to bring charges against violators of antitrust laws and they may face as much as treble damages (three times of the damage caused to other parties).

Artificial raising of price and restriction of supply of products or trade are prohibited under this Act.

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Account Balances
Mashutka [201]

If a person write a check for $759 to make a payment on a loan, then the account balance would be changed as in the balance sheet of the person.

<h3>What is account balance?</h3>

An Account balance is limited as the amount of monetary system that is hold in a specific account in the bank account or in any another account.

From the given case, if a person make a payment of loan, then the account balance would be:

Assets = $36,767 ($37,526 – $759)

Liabilities = $12,086 ($12,845  -$759)

Equity = $32,500

Therefore, the balance of Equity remains unaffected by the payment of loan.

Learn more about the loan, refer to;

brainly.com/question/11794123

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6 0
2 years ago
Ariel holds a $5,000 portfolio that consists of four stocks. Her investment in each stock, as well as each stockâs beta, is list
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

1) Flitcom Corp (Beta = 0.60)

2) Tobotics Inc. (s.d. = 11%)

Explanation:

1. Suppose all stocks in Ariel's portfolio were equally weighted. Which of these stocks would contribute the least market risk to the portfolio?

The indicator of the market risk is the Beta. It relates the variation of the price or value of the stock relative to the variation of the total stocks in the market.

The value of Beta indicates how risky is a stock relative to the risk of the market. A Beta =1 means it has the same systemic risk as the market. If Beta<1, the stock is less volatile than the market, and if Beta>1, it is more volatile than the market.

Then, the stock with less value of Beta will contribute the least risk to the portfolio.

This is the case of Flitcom Corp (Beta=0.60)

2. Suppose all stocks in the portfolio were equally weighted. Which of these stocks would have the least amount of stand-alone risk?

The stand-alone is reflected by the standard deviation. The less the standard deviation, the less risk of the stock (measured only the stock variability).

This is the case of Tobotics Inc. (s.d. = 11%)

7 0
3 years ago
Stewart inc.'s latest eps was $3.50, its book value per share was $22.75, it had 215,000 shares outstanding, and its debt-to-ass
Vikki [24]
<span>80,000 people who traveled to the West in search of riches</span>
4 0
3 years ago
The most recent financial statements for Live Co. are shown here: Income Statement Balance Sheet Sales $14,000 Current assets $3
Sav [38]

Answer:

The sustainable growth rate is 16.52%

Explanation:

To compute the substantial growth rate, first, we have to calculate the retention ratio. The formula to compute the retention ratio is shown below:

= 1 – payout ratio

= 1 – 0.16

=0.84 or 84%

Now, we use the formula of substantial growth rate which is shown below:

= (Return on equity × retention ratio) ÷ { 1 -  (Return on equity × retention ratio)}

where,

Return on equity = (Net income ÷ total equity) × 100

                            = ($3,640 ÷ $21,560) × 100

                            = 16.88%

= (16.88% × 84%) ÷ ( 1 -  16.88% × 84%)

= 0.141792 ÷ (1 -  0.141792 )

= 0.141792  ÷ 0.858208

= 0.1652 or 16.52%

8 0
3 years ago
The main reason most international transactions require full payment before the buyer receives the merchandise is:.
Zarrin [17]

An underlying lack of trust. An excess of factor endowments is the main reason most international transactions require full payment before the buyer receives the merchandise.

<h3>What is the main reason of international full payments' requirement?</h3>

People act in various ways for various reasons. The basic reason that most overseas transactions demand full payment before the buyer receives the goods is that there is a fundamental lack of confidence.

When there is a lack of trust in commercial interactions, it opens the door to a lot of negative thoughts, actions, and feelings. Lack of trust has led to discouragement, depression, and the possibility of self-harm.

There are options missing in the question of which are given below-

a. strict government regulations.

b. an underlying lack of trust. an excess of factor endowments.

c. to trigger lower tariffs.

d. the inability to charge interest on the cost of goods.

Thus, option B is correct.

For more details about the question click here:

brainly.com/question/18958231

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8 0
2 years ago
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