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viva [34]
3 years ago
15

Select the correct answer.

Mathematics
2 answers:
sukhopar [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

b. present money

Step-by-step explanation:

the concept that States an amount of money today is worth more than that sum amount in the future. future money is not worth much then the amount received today.

rewona [7]3 years ago
5 0
Answer is B, Present Value
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The probably would be a chance of matching 74%
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Lakiesha is an employee who drives a 2019 Buick Verano as a company car. The fair-market value of the car is $28,545. She has be
Dovator [93]

Answer:

Lease value          

Step-by-step explanation:

The lease value may bed defined as an open market capital valuation of the parts of the subject or the subject that are to be leased in regards of the terms of the lease.

In the context, Lakiesha drives a company car whose value is $ 7,750 according to 15-b publication. The car was available for 200 days in a year. She drove the car for 4500 miles for her personal use and 21250 miles in total. The fuel is paid by the employer. So here the best method that will yield the lowest fringe benefit amount for her is the lease value method.

3 0
3 years ago
Among 8 PS4s, four are good and four have defects. Unaware of this, a customer buys 5 PS4s.
astraxan [27]

Answer:

(a) The probability of exactly 2 defective PS4s among them is 0.3125.

(b) The probability that exactly ​ 2 are defective given that  ​at least ​ 2 purchased PS4s are defective is 0.3846.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let <em>X</em> = number of defective PS4s.

It is provided that 4 PS4s of 8 are defective.

The probability of selecting a defective PS4 is:

P(X)=p=\frac{4}{8}=0.50

A customer bought <em>n</em> = 5 PS4s.

The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution with parameters <em>n</em> = 5 and <em>p</em> = 0.50.

The probability function of a Binomial distribution is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x}(1-p)^{n-x};\ x=0, 1, 2, 3...

(a)

Compute the probability of exactly 2 defective PS4s among them as follows:

P(X=2)={5\choose 2}(0.50)^{2}(1-0.50)^{5-2}=10\times0.25\times0.125=0.3125

Thus, the probability of exactly 2 defective PS4s among them is 0.3125.

(b)

Compute the probability that exactly ​ 2 are defective given that  ​at least ​ 2 purchased PS4s are defective as follows:

P(X=2|X\geq 2)=\frac{P(X=2\cap X\geq2)}{P(X\geq2)} =\frac{P(X=2)}{P(X\geq 2)}

The value of P (X = 2) is 0.3125.

The value of P (X ≥ 2) is:

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

Then the value of P (X = 2 | X ≥ 2) is:

P(X=2|X\geq 2)=\frac{P(X=2)}{P(X\geq 2)}=\frac{0.3125}{0.8125} =0.3846

Thus, the probability that exactly ​ 2 are defective given that  ​at least ​ 2 purchased PS4s are defective is 0.3846.

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The negative sign in 15t-2t belongs to the term____?
alexdok [17]

The expression 15t – 2t not equivalent to 2t – 15t because the negative sign in 15t – 2t belongs to the term 2t.

Solution:

Given expressions are 15t – 2t and 2t – 15t.

To determine 15t – 2t is equivalent to 2t – 15t or not.

Substitute t = 2 in above two expressions.

15t – 2t = 15(2) – 2(2)

            = 30 – 4

            = 26

2t – 15t = 2(2) – 15(2)

            = 4 – 30

            = –26

The values of the expressions are different when t = 2.

So, 15t – 2t is not equivalent to 2t – 15t.

Hence the expression 15t – 2t not equivalent to 2t – 15t because the negative sign in 15t – 2t belongs to the term 2t.

7 0
3 years ago
A set of cards contains cards numbered 1 – 8. Mrs. Jacob’s class is conducting an experiment in which a card is drawn from the p
andrezito [222]

Answer:

125

Step-by-step explanation:


8 0
3 years ago
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