There are two ways to do this but the way I prefer is to make one of the equations in terms of one variable and then 'plug this in' to the second equation. I will demonstrate
Look at equation 1,

this can quite easily be manipulated to show

.
Then because there is a y in the second equation (and both equations are simultaneous) we can 'plug in' our new equation where y is in the second one

which can then be solved for x since there is only one variable

and then with our x solution we can work out our y solution by using the equation we manipulated

.
So the solution to these equations is x=-2 when y=6
Answer:
D the last answer
Step-by-step explanation:
As X approaches positive or negative infinity, f(x) would approach negative infinity.
Answer:
628/1300
Step-by-step explanation:
These are what would represent her problem..
41
X 4
=
164 that the answer using standard Algorithm
Answer:
5750
710.7
Step-by-step explanation:
Simple interest = principal. * rate * time
Principal (p) = sum of money
1380 = p * 0.12 * 2
1380 = 0.24p
p = 1380 / 0.24
p = 5750 rupees.
The compound interest :
A = P(1 + r/n)^nt
A = final amount
n = number of compounding times per period
t = period
A = 5750(1 + 0.12/2)^2*1
A = 5750(1 + 0.06)^2
A = 5750(1.06)^2
A = 5750 * 1.1236
A = 6460.7
Hence, compound interest is :
Final amount - principal
6460.7 - 5750
= 710.7 rupees