<h3>
Answer: 79 full rotations</h3>
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Explanation:
150 cm = 150/100 = 1.5 m
The wheel has a diameter of 1.5 meters
The circumference of the wheel is
C = pi*d
C = pi*1.5
C = 1.5pi
C = 4.71238898038469
I'm using my calculator's stored version of pi to get the most accuracy.
Then we divide the 376.8 over the circumference found
(376.8)/(4.71238898038469) = 79.9594434093682
Despite being very close to 80, we must round down to 79 because we don't have enough to get that full 80th rotation. In other words, we have 79 full rotations and then some change leftover.
Though for the sake of simplicity, I can see how it's useful to say "about 80 rotations" if 79 seems a bit clunky. I'll stick with 79 however. Let me know if your teacher instructs otherwise.
Answer: All real numbers are solutions.
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Let's solve your equation step-by-step.</u>
−(5x+6)−x=−6−6x
<u>Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.</u>
−(5x+6)−x=−6−6x
−5x+−6+−x=−6+−6x(Distribute)
(−5x+−x)+(−6)=−6x−6(Combine Like Terms)
−6x+−6=−6x−6
−6x−6=−6x−6
<u>Step 2: Add 6x to both sides.</u>
−6x−6+6x=−6x−6+6x
−6=−6
<u>Step 3: Add 6 to both sides.</u>
−6+6=−6+6
0=0
Answer:
1. less likely
2. more likely
Step-by-step explanation:
test took
Answer:
B. 0.602%
Step-by-step explanation:
Probability is essentially (# times specific event will occur) / (# times general event will occur). Here, we have a few specific events: draw a quarter, draw a second quarter, draw a penny, and draw another penny. The general event will just be the number of coins there are to choose from.
The probability that the first draw is a quarter will be 4 / (4 + 8 + 9) = 4/21.
Since we've drawn one now, there's only 21 - 1 = 20 total coins left. The probability of drawing a second quarter is: (4 - 1) / (21 - 1) = 3/20.
The probability of drawing a penny is: 9 / (20 - 1) = 9/19.
The probability of drawing a second penny is: (9 - 1) / (19 - 1) = 8/18.
Multiply these four probabilities together:
(4/21) * (3/20) * (9/19) * (8/18) = 864 / 143640 ≈ 0.602%
The answer is B.