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3 years ago

Compared to India, China: ___________

Business

1 answer:

inysia [295]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is the option B: is much stronger in mass manufacturing

Explanation:

On the one hand, China is the among the most powerful countries in the world and part of that is thanks to the fact that they are the number one country in the planet who dominates the mass manufacturing. Most of the products of the world have a component that is fabricated or ensambled in China. Therefore that most of the products have the well famous phrase "made in China". And that is also due to the fact that the population of the country is one of the most highers in the world as well and most of them are workers who produce in the factories.

On the other hand, India is the one who has develop world-class information-technology services.

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Consider the following information for Evenflow Power Co., Debt: 5,000 6.5 percent coupon bonds outstanding, $1,000 par value, 1

melamori03 [73]

Answer:

WACC 10.07765%

Explanation:

We solve for the cost of debt by solving for the discount rate which makes the future coupon payment and maturity of the bond equal to 1,020

This is solved using excel or a financial calculator

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 32.50

time 34

rate 0.03153274

$32.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.03153274)^{-34} }{0.0315327401919093} = PV\\$

PV $672.0015

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 34.00

rate 0.03153274

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.03153274)^{34} } = PV$

PV 348.00

PV c $672.0015

PV m $347.9985

Total $1,020.0000

annual cost of debt:

0.031532 x 2 = 0.063064 = 6.31%

debt outstanding:

5,000 bonds x $ 1,000 x 102/100 = 5,100,000

equity:

105,000 shares x $59 each = 6,195,000

For the equity we solve using CAMP

$Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)$

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.09

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.085

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.17

$Ke= 0.05 + 1.17 (0.085)$

Ke 0.14945

Now we solve for the WACC

$WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})$

D 5,100,000

E 6,195,000

V 11,295,000

Equity weight 0.5485

Debt Weight 0.4515

Ke 0.14945

Kd 0.0631

t 0.34

$WACC = 0.14945(0.5485) + 0.0631(1-0.34)(0.4515)$

WACC 10.07765%

7 0

3 years ago

Which of the following statements about Generally Accepted Audit Standards are true?

lidiya [134]

Answer:

B) I and III

Explanation:

Generally Accepted Audit Standards are used for auditing private companies. They provide systematic guidelines to auditors when conducting audits on companies' financial statements. They check for the auditor's verifiability of the company's compliance to the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) as well as their accuracy and consistency of their records. Therefore, choices I and III are correct.

8 0

3 years ago

How does Wikipedia work? What is different about this operation from other encyclopedias?

Eddi Din [679]

It is different because people actually have the option of correcting the information or putting false things too.

7 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A nurse researcher will choose an ex post facto design over more a correlational design because:

Dafna1 [17]

Well because a retrospective or ex post facto study offers a higher level of control than a correctional study!!

6 0

4 years ago

A car rental agency uses 96 boxes of staples a year. The boxes cost $4 each. It costs $20 to order staples, and carrying costs a

WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

The correct answer is $55.42.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Boxes use = 96 boxes

Cost = $4 per box

Staple cost = $20

Carrying cost = $0.80

So, we can calculate the annual cost of ordering and carrying by using following formula:

Annual cost = (EOQ ÷ 2) × Carrying cost + (Boxes use ÷ EOQ) × Staple cost

Where, EOQ = ( 2 × 96 × 20 ÷ 0.80)^1/2 = 69.28

So, by putting the value, we get

Annual cost = ( 69.28 ÷ 2) × $0.80 + ( 96 ÷ 69.28) × $20

= $27.71 + $27.71

= $55.42

8 0

3 years ago