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spin [16.1K]
3 years ago
15

Given g ( x ) = 2 x + 3 , solve for x when g(x)=3.

Mathematics
1 answer:
padilas [110]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

x = 0

Step by step explanation:

g ( x ) = 2x + 3

If x = 0,

g ( 0 ) = 2 (0) + 3

or, g ( 0 ) = 3

<em>Hope that helped :)</em>

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Somebody please help me on this!!
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80 degrees because it decreases by a half each time so by the time it is E (the fourth letter) it has gotten to 20 so the answer is 160
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3 years ago
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What is the answer to 5/8 1/4?
Aleksandr [31]
5 × 1. = 5
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8 × 4. = 32


5/32
4 0
3 years ago
Which is the value of g(-5) if g(x)=3.4x-8?
irinina [24]
Plug the value -5 in. (3.4)(-5) - 8 is equivalent to -17 - 8. Final answer: g(-5) = -25.
6 0
3 years ago
A spacecraft is traveling with a velocity of v0x = 5320 m/s along the +x direction. Two engines are turned on for a time of 739
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

The velocities after 739 s of firing of each engine would be 6642.81 m/s in the x direction and 5306.02 in the y direction

Step-by-step explanation:

  1. For a constant acceleration: v_{f}=v_{0}+at, where  v_{f} is the final velocity in a direction after the acceleration is applied, v_{0} is the initial velocity in that direction  before the acceleration is applied, a is the acceleration applied in such direction, and t is the amount of time during where that acceleration was applied.
  2. <em>Then for the x direction</em> it is known that the initial velocity is v_{0x} = 5320 m/s, the acceleration (the applied by the engine) in x direction is a_{x} 1.79 m/s2 and, the time during the acceleration was applied (the time during the engines were fired) of the  is 739 s. Then: v_{fx}=v_{0x}+a_{x}t=5320\frac{m}{s} +1.79\frac{m}{s^{2} }*739s=6642.81\frac{m}{s}
  3. In the same fashion, <em>for the y direction</em>, the initial velocity is  v_{0y} = 0 m/s, the acceleration in y direction is a_{y} 7.18 m/s2, and the time is the same that in the x direction, 739 s, then for the final velocity in the y direction: v_{fy}=v_{0y}+a_{y}t=0\frac{m}{s} +7.18\frac{m}{s^{2} }*739s=5306.02\frac{m}{s}
8 0
3 years ago
Suppose that f: R --&gt; R is a continuous function such that f(x +y) = f(x)+ f(y) for all x, yER Prove that there exists KeR su
Pachacha [2.7K]
<h2>Answer with explanation:</h2>

It is given that:

f: R → R is a continuous function such that:

f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)------(1)  ∀  x,y ∈ R

Now, let us assume f(1)=k

Also,

  • f(0)=0

(  Since,

f(0)=f(0+0)

i.e.

f(0)=f(0)+f(0)

By using property (1)

Also,

f(0)=2f(0)

i.e.

2f(0)-f(0)=0

i.e.

f(0)=0  )

Also,

  • f(2)=f(1+1)

i.e.

f(2)=f(1)+f(1)         ( By using property (1) )

i.e.

f(2)=2f(1)

i.e.

f(2)=2k

  • Similarly for any m ∈ N

f(m)=f(1+1+1+...+1)

i.e.

f(m)=f(1)+f(1)+f(1)+.......+f(1) (m times)

i.e.

f(m)=mf(1)

i.e.

f(m)=mk

Now,

f(1)=f(\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{n}+.......+\dfrac{1}{n})=f(\dfrac{1}{n})+f(\dfrac{1}{n})+....+f(\dfrac{1}{n})\\\\\\i.e.\\\\\\f(\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{n}+.......+\dfrac{1}{n})=nf(\dfrac{1}{n})=f(1)=k\\\\\\i.e.\\\\\\f(\dfrac{1}{n})=k\cdot \dfrac{1}{n}

Also,

  • when x∈ Q

i.e.  x=\dfrac{p}{q}

Then,

f(\dfrac{p}{q})=f(\dfrac{1}{q})+f(\dfrac{1}{q})+.....+f(\dfrac{1}{q})=pf(\dfrac{1}{q})\\\\i.e.\\\\f(\dfrac{p}{q})=p\dfrac{k}{q}\\\\i.e.\\\\f(\dfrac{p}{q})=k\dfrac{p}{q}\\\\i.e.\\\\f(x)=kx\ for\ all\ x\ belongs\ to\ Q

(

Now, as we know that:

Q is dense in R.

so Э x∈ Q' such that Э a seq belonging to Q such that:

\to x )

Now, we know that: Q'=R

This means that:

Э α ∈ R

such that Э sequence a_n such that:

a_n\ belongs\ to\ Q

and

a_n\to \alpha

f(a_n)=ka_n

( since a_n belongs to Q )

Let f is continuous at x=α

This means that:

f(a_n)\to f(\alpha)\\\\i.e.\\\\k\cdot a_n\to f(\alpha)\\\\Also\\\\k\cdot a_n\to k\alpha

This means that:

f(\alpha)=k\alpha

                       This means that:

                    f(x)=kx for every x∈ R

4 0
3 years ago
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