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2 years ago

BRAINLIEST FOR ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION JUST ONE QUESTION ATTACHED BELOW:

Mathematics

2 answers:

Kamila [148]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This triangle has been dialated; ILM is a dialated version of IJK. We know that dialations are by scale factors, and we also know the length of two corresponding sides.

IM is 6 m long, and IMK is 6+6 m long, so 12 m. So using simple ratios, we know the dialation factor from ILM to IJK is 2. The corresponding side for JK (m) is LM, which we know is 8 m. So side m is 16 because of the scale factor (2).

Maybe you thought we were solving for "m", as in a varriable all the sides are multiplied by, but I think that's just bad labeling. Hope this helps!

skelet666 [1.2K]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

m=16

Step-by-step explanation:

(6+6)/m=6/8

12/m=6/8

M=16

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given inequality:

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Verify if (-1, 1) is correct:

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ollegr [7]

Answer:

FALSE

Step-by-step explanation:

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Read 2 more answers

Pls help me with this

Illusion [34]

Answer:

No solutions.

Step-by-step explanation:

Both equations have the same slope, but are separated by virtue of their different values of b, the y-intercept. The same slope means they are parallel lines. Since the y-intercept is different, they do not overlap.

As they say, "Parallel line have a lot in common. Too bad they'll never meet."

See attachment.

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