One way is to solve for the invers of the first function
remembe, to solve, replace f(x) or g(x) with y, switch x and y, solve for y and replace it with f⁻¹(x)
A.
f(x)=x/2+8
y=x/2+8
x=y/2+8
x-8=y/2
2x-16=y
f⁻¹(x)=2x-16
nope, not A
B.
f(x)=3x³+16
y=3x³+16
x=3y³+16
x-16=3y³
(x-16)/3=y³
∛((x-16)/3)=y
f⁻¹(x)=∛((x-16)/3)
nope, not the same
not B
C.
f(x)=18/x-9
y=18/x-9
x=18/y-9
x+9=18/y
y(x+9)=18
y=18/(x+9)
f⁻¹(x)=18/(x+9)
correct, the answer is C
answer is C
$25! Think about it, to get $15.90 as your discounted price, the unknown number must be multiplied by 60% to get $15.90. If you wanna find the original price, do the opposite! What is $15.90 divided by .6? $25!
Answer: i think it is A tell me if i am wrong!
Step-by-step explanation:
Every coin flip has a 1/2 probability (50% chance) of landing on tails no matter what it landed on before.
so the probability of landing on tails id 1/2 or 50% ( however you need to answer)
