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kramer
3 years ago
15

Deepak is using blocks to represent the four operation on 8 and 2 witch operation will require the greatest number of blocks

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vadim26 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:

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Please help!!!! My assignment is almost due!!!
NeX [460]

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

the triangles are similar so will be the same proprotion,

I have attached a picture showing how I solved this. the second traingle is 3 times as large (15 by 12)   compared to the first triangle which is 4 by 5.

3 0
2 years ago
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Find the product of x2 + 2x - 4 and 3x .
Mariulka [41]

Answer:x4+2x3+7x2+6x+12

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
For a moving object, the force acting on the object varies directly with the object's acceleration. When a force of 20 N acts on
jeka94

The acceleration of the object will be 10 m/s²

Step-by-step explanation:

Direct variation is a relationship between two variables that can be expressed by an equation in which one variable is equal to a constant times the other

  • If y varies directly with x, then y ∝ x
  • y = k x, where k is the constant of variation

For a moving object, the force acting on the object varies directly with the object's acceleration.

Assume that the force is F and the acceleration is a

∵ F ∝ a

∴ F = k a

∵ F = 20 newtons

∵ a = 4 m/s²

- Substitute these values in the equation above to find k

∵ 20 = k (4)

∴ 20 = 4 k

- Divide both sides by 4

∴ k = 5

- Substitute the value of k in the equation

∴ F = 5 a ⇒ equation of variation

∵ F = 50 Newtons

∵ F = 5 a

∴ 50 = 5 a

- Divide both sides by 5

∴ 10 = a

∴ a = 10 m/s²

The acceleration of the object will be 10 m/s²

Learn more:

You can learn more about variation in brainly.com/question/10708697

#LearnwithBrainly

7 0
3 years ago
A blackjack player at a Las Vegas casino learned that the house will provide a free room if play is for four hours at an average
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

a) player’s expected payoff is $ 240

b) probability the player loses $1000 or more is 0.1788

c)  probability the player wins is 0.3557

d) probability of going broke is 0.0594

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Since there are 60 hands per hour and the player plays for four hours then the sample size is:

n = 60 * 4 = 240

The player’s strategy provides a probability of .49 of winning on any one hand so the probability of success is:

p = 0.49

a)

Solution:

Expected payoff is basically the expected mean

Since the bet is $50 so $50 is gained when the player wins a hand and $50 is lost when the player loses a hand. So

Expected loss =  μ

                        = ∑ x P(x)

                        = 50 * P(win) - 50 * P(lose)

                        = 50 * P(win) + (-50) * (1 - P(win))

                         = 50 * 0.49 - 50 * (1 - 0.49)

                        = 24.5 - 50 ( 0.51 )

                        = 24.5 - 25.5

                        = -1

Since n=240 and expected loss is $1 per hand then the expected loss in four hours is:

240 * 1 = $ 240

b)

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 110.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = −7.1/√117.6(0.51)

  = −7.1/√59.976

  = −7.1/7.744417

  =−0.916789

Here the player loses 1000 or more when he loses at least 130 of 240 hands so the wins is 240-130 = 110

Using normal probability table:

P(X≤110) = P(X<110.5)

             = P(Z<-0.916)

             = 0.1788

c)

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 120.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = 2.9/√117.6(0.51)

  = 2.9/√59.976

  = 2.9/7.744417

  =0.374463

Here the player wins when he wins at least 120 of 240 hands

Using normal probability table:

P(X>120) = P(X>120.5)

              = P(Z>0.3744)  

             =  1 - P(Z<0.3744)

             = 1 - 0.6443

             = 0.3557

d)

Player goes broke when he loses $1500

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 105.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = -12.1/√117.6(0.51)

  = -12.1/√59.976

  = -12.1/7.744417

  =−1.562416

Here the player loses 1500 or more when he loses at least 135 of 240 hands so the wins is 240-135 = 105

Using normal probability table:

P(X≤105) = P(X<105.5)

             = P(Z<-1.562)

             = 0.0594

7 0
3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation: y=(x-3)^2-2

Y=x^2-6x+7

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3 years ago
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