Answer:
c. the cash realizable value of accounts receivable in the balance sheet is the same before and after an account is written off.
Explanation:
Under the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts, the cash realizable value of accounts receivable in the balance sheet is the same before and after an account is written off and bad debt expenses is debited.
This means that in the period in which an account previously written off is collected, the income is unaffected.
Also, under the allowance method of accounting, total assets will remain unchanged when a particular account is being written off.
Answer:
<u>a. High inflation rates</u>
Explanation:
Note that<em> a major role of a corporate finance manager </em>is to maximize the profits of a business by providing advice as to mergers as well as buying and selling financial products.
Therefore, according to reports David Jimenez in the early 1980s was faced with the problems of high inflation rates which meant a rise in the cost of production etc for companies or businesses under his care.
Answer:
C.) The interest groups could only use the phrase for non-profit purposes.
Explanation:
I know for a fact I am right, cause I was built *DIFFERENT*
Have a spectacular day!! :D
The answer is "<u>The disagreement between these economists is most likely due to differences in scientific judgments."</u>
It isn't surprising that as the inquiry proceeds with, researchers at times differ about the bearing in which truth lies. Economists regularly differ for a similar reason. Economics is a youthful science, and there is still much to be educated. Economists here and there differ in light of the fact that they have distinctive hunches about the legitimacy of elective hypotheses or about the extent of critical parameters that measure how monetary factors are connected.
Answer:
You should be willing to pay $984.93 for Bond X
Explanation:
The price of a bond is equivalent to the present value of all the cash flows that are likely to accrue to an investor once the bond is bought. These cash-flows are the periodic coupon payments that are to be paid annually and the proceeds from the sale of the bond at the end of year 5.
During the 5 years, there are 5 equal periodic coupon payments that will be made. Given a par value equal to $1,000 and a coupon rate equal to 11% the annual coupon paid will be 
= $110. This stream of cash-flows is an ordinary annuity.
The PV of the cash-flows = PV of the coupon payments + PV of the value of the bond at the end of year 5
Assuming that at the end of year 5 the yield to maturity on a 15-year bond with similar risk will be 10.5%, the price of the bond will be equal to :
110*PV Annuity Factor for 15 periods at 10.5%+ $1,000* PV Interest factor with i=10.5% and n =15
= ![110*\frac{[1-(1+0.105)^-^1^5]}{0.105}+ \frac{1,000}{(1+0.105)^1^5}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=110%2A%5Cfrac%7B%5B1-%281%2B0.105%29%5E-%5E1%5E5%5D%7D%7B0.105%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%7D%7B%281%2B0.105%29%5E1%5E5%7D%20)
=$1,036.969123
therefore, the value of the bond today equals
110*PV Annuity Factor for 5 periods at 12%+ $1,036.969123* PV Interest factor with i=12% and n =5
= ![110*\frac{[1-(1+0.12)^-^5]}{0.105}+ \frac{1,036.969123}{(1+0.12)^5}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=110%2A%5Cfrac%7B%5B1-%281%2B0.12%29%5E-%5E5%5D%7D%7B0.105%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%2C036.969123%7D%7B%281%2B0.12%29%5E5%7D%20)
=$984.93
