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tigry1 [53]
3 years ago
8

A bar B made of some material is attracted by a magnet. Is the bar B magnetised ?​

Physics
1 answer:
Dvinal [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

No, it is not magnetized.

Explanation:

Bar B does not necessarily have to be magnetized before it can be attracted to a magnet. It just has to be a magnetic material such as Iron.

If bar B were magnetized, it could either be attracted or repelled by the magnet since this would depend on the side of the pole of bar B facing it.

Since we are not given any information about bar B other than it is attracted to the magnet, it is thus not magnetized.

You might be interested in
Determine the work done by 2. 00 kg of water when it is all boiled to steam at 100 ∘c. Assume a constant pressure of 1. 00 atm.
neonofarm [45]

The work done by the water at the constant pressure is -4.52 \times 10^6 \ J.

<h3>Heat required to boil the water</h3>

The heat required to boil the water is calculated as follows;

Q = mL_v\\\\

where;

  • L_v is the heat of vaporization of water = 22.6 x 10⁵ J/kg
  • m is mass of water

Q = 2 \times 22.6 \times 10^5\\\\Q = 4.52 \times 10^6 \ J

<h3>Work done by the water</h3>

The work done by the water at the constant pressure is equal to the heat gained by the water.

W = - \Delta H\\\\W = -4.52 \times 10^6 \ J.

Learn more about first law of thermodynamics here: brainly.com/question/2965070

4 0
3 years ago
Which has a larger resistance, a 60 W lightbulb or a 100 W lightbulb? Which has a larger resistance, a 60 W lightbulb or a 100 W
Luba_88 [7]

You really can't tell.

Power = I^2 × R = V^2 / R ( unit in Watt)

For P = I^2 × R

Where we have P directly proportional to R, increase in Power leads to increase in R

So if we have 100 will have higher resistance

For P = V^2/R

Power is inversely proportional to resistance.

So increase in Power leads to decrease in resistance.

60 watt will have a higher resistance.

5 0
3 years ago
Please tell me if this looks right.
maria [59]
Compression is the best answer. Think about pressing on the toy bus enough to bend the table but not break it
8 0
4 years ago
When frequency division multiplexing (FDM) is used to aggregate several modulated channels together, no separation between chann
zaharov [31]

Answer:

False.

Separation between channel is required when frequency division multiplexing (FDM) is used to aggregate several modulated channels together.

Explanation:

In Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM), the total bandwidth is divided to a set of frequency bands that do not overlap. Each of these bands is a carrier of a different signal that is generated and modulated by one of the sending devices.

The frequency bands are separated from one another by strips of unused frequencies called the guard bands, to prevent overlapping of signals.

The modulated signals are combined together using a multiplexer (MUX) in the sending end. The combined signal is transmitted over the communication channel, thus allowing multiple independent data streams to be transmitted simultaneously. At the receiving end, the individual signals are extracted from the combined signal by the process of demultiplexing (DEMUX).

6 0
3 years ago
Two forces, F⃗ 1F→1F_1_vec and F⃗ 2F→2F_2_vec, act at a point,F⃗ 1F→1F_1_vec has a magnitude of 8.80 NN and is directed at an an
castortr0y [4]

Answer:

  • Fx = -9.15 N
  • Fy = 1.72 N
  • F∠γ ≈ 9.31∠-10.6°

Explanation:

You apparently want the sum of forces ...

  F = 8.80∠-56° +7.00∠52.8°

Your angle reference is a bit unconventional, so we'll compute the components of the forces as ...

  f∠α = (-f·cos(α), -f·sin(α))

This way, the 2nd quadrant angle that has a negative angle measure will have a positive y component.

  = -8.80(cos(-56°), sin(-56°)) -7.00(cos(52.8°), sin(52.8°))

  ≈ (-4.92090, 7.29553) +(-4.23219, -5.57571)

  ≈ (-9.15309, 1.71982)

The resultant component forces are ...

  • Fx = -9.15 N
  • Fy = 1.72 N

Then the magnitude and direction of the resultant are

  F∠γ = (√(9.15309² +1.71982²))∠arctan(-1.71982/9.15309)

  F∠γ ≈ 9.31∠-10.6°

4 0
3 years ago
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