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antoniya [11.8K]
3 years ago
7

PLEASE HELP!! Question:use the figure to solve for x

Mathematics
2 answers:
liberstina [14]3 years ago
8 0
The answer to this is D= 45
Norma-Jean [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

d. x=45

Step-by-step explanation:

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I need help with this plz help
Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

just swap the first two and you should be good

5 0
3 years ago
Please help. 10 points and brainliest.
Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

\frac{a^2}{b^2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Apply the exponent rule a^b*a^c=a^b+c to a

a^4*a^-^2=a^4^-^2=a^2

b^3a^2b^-^5

Apply the exponent rule to b

b^3*b^-^5=b^3^-^5=b^-^2

Apply the exponent rule a^-^b=\frac{1}{a^b}

b^-^2=\frac{1}{b^2}=\frac{1}{b^2}a^2=\frac{a^2}{b^2}

6 0
3 years ago
You read online that the probability of being dealt four‑of‑a‑kind in a five‑card poker hand is 1 / 4165. Explain carefully what
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

There is about 4,164/4,165 chances of not getting getting a four of a kind. So, it is extremely unlikely or even borderline impossible in that situation to get a four of a kind.

<u>But in the long run, it can be increased only if you keep drawing.  So, the awnser would have to be. D  </u>

Step-by-step explanation:

A. It does mean that if you are dealt 4165 five‑card poker hands, one will be four‑of‑a‑kind.

B.  It does not mean that all will be four‑of‑a‑kind. The probability is actually saying that only on the 4165 the poker hand will you get a four‑of‑a‑kind, not just on any of the 4165 poker hands.

C. The probability is actually saying that in the long run, with a large number of five‑card poker hands, the fraction in which you will be dealt a four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165.

D. The chance you will be dealt four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165 only on the first hand. This chance will then increase with each new hand you are dealt until you eventually win

6 0
2 years ago
Question: "If y &gt; 3, what is the value of n ?"
iris [78.8K]

Answer:

y-3

Problem:

What is the remainder when the dividend is xy-3, the divisor is y, and the quotient is x-1. ?

Step-by-step explanation:

Dividend=quotient×divisor+remainder

So we have

xy-3=(x-1)×(y)+remainder

xy-3=(xy-y)+remainder *distributive property

Now we just need to figure out what polynomial goes in for the remainder so this will be a true identity.

We need to get rid of minus y so we need plus y in the remainder.

We also need minus 3 in the remainder.

So the remainder is y-3.

Let's try it out:

xy-3=(xy-y)+remainder

xy-3=(xy-y)+(y-3)

xy-3=xy-3 is what we wanted so we are done here.

7 0
3 years ago
12 dogs decreased by 25%
il63 [147K]
The answer would be 8 dogs.

6 0
3 years ago
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