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Nataly [62]
2 years ago
6

Please answer this for me :)

History
1 answer:
Ostrovityanka [42]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1.

Explanation:

The federal government use to do what ever they wanted.

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Rroughly half to 60% can speak it well enough to hold a basic conversation
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Why is the period between 600-1450 ce referred to as the dark ages? were they "dark" globally? if not, give examples?
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Between the time periods of 600-1450 Common Era, it was referred to as the dark ages in Europe because the cities and regions in Europe lack poetry, which was a dark experience. It was not really a dark globally, but only in the part of Europe wherein poetry vanished, but right after the dark ages, was the beginning of the modern age, which gave life to poetry and to music once more.

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Read 2 more answers
1. Who do you think "won"
QveST [7]

Regarding the clash of cultures between traditionalism (the old) and modernism (the new) there is no specific winner, but what happens is the transformation of society according to the new parameters that have been incorporated throughout history.

<h3>Examples of clash of cultures</h3>

Therefore, it is correct to say that the clash of cultures is still occurring today. As some examples for this fact, we can base ourselves on the technological revolution, which made globalization and the digital revolution possible.

With globalization, multicultural environments also emerged, where each culture is able to influence the other and coexist peacefully.

There is also the digitization of work, social interaction and the speed of information flow made possible by the creation of the internet, which makes older people need to adapt to these new realities in order to fit into new social dynamics.

Find out more information about globalization here:

brainly.com/question/1133228

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