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Darya [45]
2 years ago
15

The value of 456×6+35×2 is ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Phoenix [80]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

2806

Step-by-step explanation:

→ First complete the multiplication

456 × 6 = 2736 and 35 × 2 = 70

→ Add the totals

2736 + 70 = 2806

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Consider the two functions:
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

  g(0) > f(0)

Step-by-step explanation:

Evaluate the functions at the point of interest: x=0.

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  f(0) = -40 . . . . from the table

Since 20 > -40, we conclude ...

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8 0
3 years ago
Wonderful people, please come in and try to help me. Please, only real comments not a random answer.
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

C.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
2b+3c^2/4a^2-2b <br><br> a=8,b=4,c=16
vekshin1

Answer:

The answer is 6

Step-by-step explanation:

try to change all variable to the number below

2(4)+3(16)^2/4(8)^2-2(4)

8+48^2/32^2-8

so now you can do multiplication and division first

48^2=96

96/32=3

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After that, you put the 6 back where it belong

8+6-8=

So the Answer equal to 6

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A figure is shown.
NNADVOKAT [17]

Answer:

Then it is just a matter of plugging in the values into the formula. For example, if one base is 6 cm long, the other is 10 cm long and the height is 4 cm, the area is then (6 + 10) / 2 x 4 = 16 / 2 x 4 = 8 x 4 = 32 cm 2 (32 square centimeters).

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Could I get some help PLEASE!!
kati45 [8]
Not similar, since the ratio of corespondent side is not constant
suppose ∆PRQ ~ ∆MRN, then RN/RP = RM/RQ but the reality contradict
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3 years ago
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