Answer:
Intensive Distribution
Explanation:
Intensive distribution is a strategy in which producers of convenience products and raw material stock their products in as many outlets as possible.
In this strategy, the producers of convenience products try to provide the product to the consumers where and when they want. In this way, consumers get brand exposure for any product they wish to buy and also it made convenient for them to buy the product. Example of such products are soaps, biscuits etc.
Thus the answer for the question is Intensive Distribution.
Answer:
i think FV(10) is 110,000.
Explanation:
Suppose today is 1/1/2000, two years from now, ur mom will get the first payment in 2002, and then the second is 2003, and the last is in 2004. U can calculate those number to bring it back to 2000, so u can calculate PV= 46,446 .Then, from 2004, ur mom plans to retire six years later from 2004, which means,2010 (she will begin retire in 2010, last day of 2009, 31/12/2009). Then u will calculate the FV= PV.(1+9%)^10= 110,000
Answer:
e. All of the above are inputs required for capital budgeting analysis.
Explanation:
All of the given parameters are inputs required for capital budgeting analysis. is an input required for a multinational capital budgeting analysis, given that it is conducted from the parent's viewpoint.
a. Salvage value
Salvage value is the estimated resale value of an asset at the end of its useful life. It is an applicable cashflow in investment appraisal
b. Price per unit sold
This is the parameter used to calculate the amount of revenue which is the first line of cashflows in an investment appraisal
c. Initial investment
This is the amount that is first spent on capital acquisition of machinery or construction, it is a cashflow in year 0, of investment appraisal
d. Consumer demand
This is the another parameter used to calculate the amount of revenue which is the first line of cashflows in an investment appraisal
Answer:
$600,000
Explanation:
The computation of the amount to be recorded for the building is shown below:
But first we have to determine the total acquisition cost of land which is as follows
= Cash + mortgage
= $750,000 + $250,000
= $1,000,000
Now it is mentioned that 60% is allocated to the building
So, it would be
= $1,000,000 × 60%
= $600,000
Answer:
$85,931.40
Explanation:
Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows.
Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator:
Cash flow in year 0 = $20,000
Cash flow in year 1 = $35,000
Cash flow in year 2 = 0
Cash flow in year 3 = $45,000
Discount rate = $85,931.40
I hope my answer helps you
