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lord [1]
3 years ago
13

Draw the tangent to the curve y = 1 -3.6 In(1) at the point (1,0). Clear All Draw: : /

Mathematics
1 answer:
V125BC [204]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

sorry don't know the answer but use this calculator on laptop call symbolab

yw

Step-by-step explanation:

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Zebediah is an American traveling with a tour group in Eastern Europe. During a stop in Rommania, he purchases a souvenir that i
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5 0
3 years ago
23, 24 And 25 please. Thank you!
Vesna [10]

Step-by-step explanation:

23. area of rect,r = 11 x 3.5 = 38.5cmsq

area of tri, t = 6 x3.5/2 = 10.5 cmsq

area of shaded region, sr = r-t

=> sr = 38.5- 10.5 = 28.5cmsq

24. area of square, s = 10x10 = 100mmsq

area of circle, c = pi x 5^2 = 78.5mmsq

area of shaded region, sr = s - c

=> sr = 100- 78.5 = 22.5mmsq

25. area of circle, c = pi x 6^2 = 113.04insq

area of tri, t = 6x12/2 = 36insq

area of shaded region, sr = c - t

=> sr = 113.04 - 36 = 77.04insq

3 0
3 years ago
You are making flour and water paste. You add 14 cup of water to the paste. Your friend adds 12 cup of water to the paste. How m
patriot [66]

Answer:

<h2><u>26</u></h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

              14

            +

              12

            --------

              26

8 0
3 years ago
Find the measure of an interior and an exterior angle of a regular 46-gon
alina1380 [7]
Exterior is 360 and interior is 7920!
8 0
3 years ago
Suppose that 50% of all babies born in a particular hospital are boys. If 6 babies born in the hospital are randomly selected, w
WINSTONCH [101]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem, the values of the parameters are given as follows:

n = 6, p = 0.5.

The probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys is given by:

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.0156

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{5} = 0.0938

P(X = 2) = C_{6,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{4} = 0.2344

Then:

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0156 + 0.0938 + 0.2344 = 0.3438

0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
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