3 years ago

Select all that apply.

Mathematics

2 answers:

Tresset [83]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

All but 4%

Step-by-step explanation:

Mashutka [201]3 years ago

6 0

4% is not equivalent to 40%
0.4 is equivalent to 40%. Just move the decimal two places to the right.
2/5 is equivalent to 0.4, which in turn is equivalent to 40%. 2 divided by 5=0.4
The answers are all but 4%

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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BigorU [14]

Hello Austint1414

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3 years ago

Suppose P(E) = 81%; P(E and F) = 9%; and P(E or F) = 65%,

PIT_PIT [208]

Using Venn probabilities, it is found that P(F) = -0.07, which is not a probability, as it is a negative value.

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We have two events, E and F.
Their probabilities are: $P(E) = 0.81, P(E \cap F) = 0.09, P(E \cup F) = 0.65$
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