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2 years ago

⚠️HELP ME OUT PLS⚠️

Mathematics

2 answers:

Katena32 [7]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Sedaia [141]2 years ago

5 0

The answer is B.
Explanation: A doesn’t make sense because he only has 3 tries not 4. C doesn’t make sense because he tried 3 times not 2 times

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loris [4]

Answer:

$2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering the expression

$2\frac{1}{32}$

$\mathrm{Convert\:mixed\:numbers\:to\:improper\:fraction:}\:a\frac{b}{c}=\frac{a\cdot \:c+b}{c}$

<em>Improper fraction is a fraction which has numerator greater than denominator, such as 5/3.</em>

So,

$2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}$

As $2\frac{1}{32}$ is converted into improper fraction $\frac{65}{32}$ .

And $\frac{65}{32}$ can not be further reduced.

Therefore,

$2\frac{1}{32}=\frac{2\cdot 32+1}{32}=\frac{65}{32}$

Keywords: fraction, reduced form, improper fraction

Learn more about fractions from brainly.com/question/535608

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