<u>A)</u><u> Capital inflow.</u>
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<h3><u>The inflow of capital: What is it?</u></h3>
Net purchases of domestic assets by non-residents, or the difference between purchases and sells, are referred to as capital inflows. Net foreign asset purchases by domestic agents, excluding the central bank, equal net capital outflows. The total of foreign direct investment into the domestic economy, portfolio investment obligations, and other investment liabilities is known as capital inflows. Capital inflows to developing nations increased dramatically in the early 1990s. Direct and portfolio investments were sparked by interest in nations with developing financial markets. The influxes were welcomed since they gave investors more chances for international diversification and helped developing nations finance domestic projects.
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Answer:
B) $1,187.50
Explanation:
The computation of the total profit or loss on this investment is given below:
Expiration price = 1061'4 = 1061 + 4 ÷ 8 = 1061.50
Quoted price = 1056'6 = 1056 + 6 ÷ 8 = 1056.75
Now the profit is
= (1061.50 - 1056.75) × 5000 × 5
= $1,187.50
Hence, the profit on this investment is $1,187.50
Answer:
Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below:
On July 1
Treasury stock A/c Dr $5,280
To Cash A/c $5,280
(Being purchase of treasury stock for cash is recorded)
The computation is shown below:
= Number of shares purchased × cash price per share
= 440 shares × $12
= $5,280
All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer: Degree of Operating Leverage
A Tech = 2.75
Z Tech = 3
Explanation:
As defined in question itself,
Degree of Operating Leverage = 
As here, it is provided that profit for both the companies are same amounting $4 million.
Although the fixed cost differ by $1 million.
A Tech Degree of operating Leverage = 1 + 
= 2.75
Z Tech Degree of Operating Leverage = 1 + 
= 3
This clearly demonstrates that A Tech will reach its break even faster than the Z Tech as the ratio of fixed cost to variable cost is lower in A tech in comparison to Z Tech.
Answer:
1. Calculate the monthly payment for a 30-year mortgage loan.
we can do this by using the present value of an annuity formula
the loan's interest rate is missing, so I looked for a similar question and found that it is 6%
present value = monthly payment x annuity factor
monthly payment = present value / annuity factor
- present value = $200,000 (loan's principal)
- PV annuity factor, 0.5%, 360 periods = 166.79161
monthly payment = $200,000 / 166.79161 = $1,199.101082 ≈ <u>$1,199.10</u>
2. Calculate the amount of interest that you’d pay for a 30-year mortgage loan.
total interests paid during the 30 years = (monthly payment x 360) - principal = ($1,199.10 x 360) - $200,000 = <u>$231,676</u>
