If you roll a six sided dice once, each outcome has a 1/6 probability.
This means 4 has a 1/6 probability.
If you roll a dice 1200 times....
1200 × 1/6 = 1200/6 = 200
You would expect to get a 4 200 times.
The system is:
i) <span>2x – 3y – 2z = 4
ii) </span><span>x + 3y + 2z = –7
</span>iii) <span>–4x – 4y – 2z = 10
the last equation can be simplified, by dividing by -2,
thus we have:
</span>i) 2x – 3y – 2z = 4
ii) x + 3y + 2z = –7
iii) 2x +2y +z = -5
The procedure to solve the system is as follows:
first use any pairs of 2 equations (for example i and ii, i and iii) and equalize them by using one of the variables:
i) 2x – 3y – 2z = 4
iii) 2x +2y +z = -5
2x can be written as 3y+2z+4 from the first equation, and -2y-z-5 from the third equation.
Equalize:
3y+2z+4=-2y-z-5, group common terms:
5y+3z=-9
similarly, using i and ii, eliminate x:
i) 2x – 3y – 2z = 4
ii) x + 3y + 2z = –7
multiply the second equation by 2:
i) 2x – 3y – 2z = 4
ii) 2x + 6y + 4z = –14
thus 2x=3y+2z+4 from i and 2x=-6y-4z-14 from ii:
3y+2z+4=-6y-4z-14
9y+6z=-18
So we get 2 equations with variables y and z:
a) 5y+3z=-9
b) 9y+6z=-18
now the aim of the method is clear: We eliminate one of the variables, creating a system of 2 linear equations with 2 variables, which we can solve by any of the standard methods.
Let's use elimination method, multiply the equation a by -2:
a) -10y-6z=18
b) 9y+6z=-18
------------------------ add the equations:
-10y+9y-6z+6z=18-18
-y=0
y=0,
thus :
9y+6z=-18
0+6z=-18
z=-3
Finally to find x, use any of the equations i, ii or iii:
<span>2x – 3y – 2z = 4
</span>
<span>2x – 3*0 – 2(-3) = 4
2x+6=4
2x=-2
x=-1
Solution: (x, y, z) = (-1, 0, -3 )
Remark: it is always a good attitude to check the answer, because often calculations mistakes can be made:
check by substituting x=-1, y=0, z=-3 in each of the 3 equations and see that for these numbers the equalities hold.</span>
There is a 1 in 15 chance it could occur. The more numbers you add, the rarer the chance. This does not guarantee that it will occur in 15 tests.
I'm pretty sure you would need to multiply 2/5 by 40.
So, if you multiply 2/5 by 40, you need to turn 40 into a fraction with 1 being the denominator.
2/5 x 40/1 = 80/5
Since the product is an improper fraction, you would simplify it to a whole number.
80/5 = 16.
He can expect to hit it 16 times to get a hole in one.
I hope I am right and have a great day.
Answer:
1/3?
Step-by-step explanation:
