Answer:
Here the Marla's company can be best described as C) border less organization.
Explanation:
Border less organization which is also commonly know as transnational corporation, is best used to describe a multinational organization, which has its head quarter in one country and various offices, facilities in multiple countries. Being this type of corporation helps a company in targeting larger customer base , utilizing national competences .
Answer:
5.71%
Explanation:
The after tax cost of debt=pretax cost of debt*(1-t)
where t is the tax rate of 35% or 0.35
pretax cost of debt=yield to maturity
The yield to maturity can be determined using rate formula in excel as below:
=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)
nper is the number of coupon interest payable by the bonds i.e 12 coupons in 12 years
pmt is the annual coupon=$1000*9.5%=$95
pv is the current market price-flotation cost=$1,100-$48=$1052
fv is the face value of $1000
=rate(12,95,-1052,1000)=8.78%
After tax cost of debt=8.78%
*(1-0.35)=5.71%
Answer: B. Capital leases do not transfer ownership of the asset under the lease, but operating leases often do.
Explanation:
When using Capital Leases, the lessee will record the lease as if it were their own asset and as a result will also depreciate it. The lessee will also create a long term liability on their balance sheet for the asset.
Capital leases usually also involve a transfer of ownership to the lessee at the end of the lease term. Operating Leases on the other hand do not have these features. They are more like a rental of an asset and as such are recorded as a rental expense in the books of the lessee. The ownership remains with the lessor in an Operating Lease and the asset will be returned once the lease period is over.
Answer:
the fixed dollar-pound exchange rate is consistently below the equilibrium exchange rate that would be produced by a private foreign exchange market.
Explanation:
Fixing an exchange rate means that the government is trying to intervene in valuation of its currency. It is fixing it's currencie's rate to another and using reserves to handle fluctuations in market price.
When the fixed rate is below equillibrum there is surplus of the countrie's currency at the fixed rate. The government will buy this surplus (if not the value will fall) by selling their foreign currency reserves. This is done to maintain the fixed exchange rate.
Reduced reserves of pounds noticed by the Central bank is as a result of fixed price below equilibrium.
Answer: 97.99
Explanation:
The one-year forward rate that an investor would be indifferent between the U.S. and Japanese investments will be:
= Spot rate × (1 + Japanese rate / 1 + U.S rate)
= 101 × (1 + 1% / 1 + 4.1%)
= 101 × [(1 + 0.01) / (1 + 0.041)]
= 101 × (1.01/1.041)
= 101 × 0.9702209
= 97.99
