Answer: 50%
Step-by-step explanation:
Total number of jerseys = 50
Total number of medium-sized = 25
% of medium - sized jersey = number of medium sized/ total number x 100
that is:
% of medium sized = 25/50 x 100
% of medium sized = 50
Answer:
#1 is 10
# 2 is
6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 12 + 14 + 14 = 100/10. The (Mean) = 10
(6- 10) + (7- 10) + (8- 10) + (9- 10) + (10- 10) + (10- 10) + (10- 10) + (12- 10) + (14- 10)
4 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 4
= 16/10 = 1 6/10
The (MAD) = 1 6/10
#3 Groups A & B
#4 sorry I can’t figure this out but I did 1/2/3
You have to find the LCD or least common denominator.
In this case the LCD would be (x-6)(x+5).
Problem: x/ x-6 - 1/x+5
Step 1: multiply x-6 to the numerator and denominator of 1/x+5
1(x-6)/ (x+5)(x-6)
Step 2: multiply x+5 to the numerator and denominator of x/x-6
x(x+5)/ (x+5)(x-6)
After all that, this is how the problem should look now
x(x+5)/ (x-6)(x+5) - 1(x-6)/ (x-6)(x+5)
If you simplify this you get
x²+5x-x+6/ (x-6)(x+5)
If you subtract both 5x-x (like terms) you get
x²+4x+6/ (x-6)(x+5)
which is the answer
~ ANSWER=1/2 ~
Simple probability is found by counting all the results which fit requirements and dividing by all possible results.
To find probability of two results in a row, multiply chance of first result by chance of second result.
Since you are replacing the marble before the second draw, we don’t have to figure out the various changes in odds for the different possible first draws. It’s just that simple.
There are 5 white marbles
There are 4 red marbles
There are always 20 marbles in all
5/20*4/20=1/4*1/5=1/20 or 1/2
By coincidence, the same as the chance of drawing the white marble in one draw.
