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Rzqust [24]
3 years ago
13

Each big square below represents one whole. What percent is represented by the shaded area?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alexandra [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

173%

Step-by-step explanation:

I think?

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Wrench sets designed for SI bolts often include wrenches at 1 mm increments while wrench sets designed for imperial bolts often
juin [17]
So 5/8 inches to milimeters
we know that 1 in=2.54 cm so
5/8 in times 2.54= 1.5875 cm
1 cm=10 mm
1.5875 cm times 10=15.875mm aprox 16 mm, but best to go smaller since it won't fit if bigger

answer: 16mm (my recomendation would be 15mm)
3 0
3 years ago
What is the cot in simplest fraction form????<br> Please help been stuck for 30 minutes!!
Fantom [35]

Answer:

65/72

Step-by-step explanation:

cot is simply cosine over sine or the tangant flipped

the cos (c)=65/97

sin (c) = 72/97

cot would be (65/97)/(72/97)

How do you divide fractions? By multiplying the reciprocal!

cot would be  65/97 * 97/72

the 97s cross out.

65/72

5 0
3 years ago
Divide 3x ^ 3 + 7x ^ 2 - 8x + 48 by x + 4
Akimi4 [234]

Answer: 3x 3 +7x  2 +40x+4

Step-by-step explanation: Hope that helps

8 0
3 years ago
In the game of Keno, a player starts by selecting 20 numbers from the numbers 1 to 80. After the player makes his selections, 20
DiKsa [7]

The percentage of winning if 20 winning numbers are randomly selected from numbers 1 to 80 is 12.48%.

Given There are 80 numbers from which 20 numbers are selected randomly in a game of Keno by player and after selection of 20 winning numbers again 20 numbers are selected and player wins if the player has correctly selected 3,4,or 5 of the 20 winning numbers.

Probability is the chance of happening an event among all the events possible.

Probability of winning is calculated as under:

Probability=C(20,3)C(60,17)/C(80,20)

We have taken C(20,3) because player will win if 5 numbers are selected from 20 winning numbers.

We have taken C(60,17) because after selection of 20 numbers 60 numbers will left from 80 and after winning from 3 numbers 17  numbers left and from total 80, 20 numbers are taken.

=C(20,3)C(60,17)/C(80,20)

=(20!/3!17!  * 60!/17!43!)/80!/20!60!

=1140*387221678682300/35353161422121743200

=12.48%

Hence the probability of winning is 12.48%.

Learn more about probability at brainly.com/question/24756209

#SPJ4

5 0
2 years ago
Tell whether the sequence is arithmetic. If it is, identify the common difference.
kiruha [24]

Answer:

Option A is correct not arithmetic

Explanation:

We have given terms \frac{1}{2},{1}{3},{1}{4}  these terms are not an arithmetic progression because

Arithmetic progression is the sequence of terms in which difference between successive and proceeding terms is same.

d=a_2-a_1

we can see the difference between \frac{1}{3} and \frac{1}{2} is \frac{-1}{6}

Whereas, the difference between \frac{1}{4}  and \frac{1}{3} is \frac{-1}{12}.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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