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DanielleElmas [232]
3 years ago
5

What is -5/9 = -10/3 v

Mathematics
1 answer:
Brut [27]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

v= 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Simiplify 10/3v = 10/3v -5/9= -10v/3

2. Multiply both sides by 3

3. Use this rule : a/b × c = ac/b

4. 5× 3= 15 -15/9= -10v

5. Simiplify 15/9 = 5/3 -5/3 = -10v

6. Divide both side by -10 -5/3/-10=v

7. Two negative make a postive 5/3/10 = v

8. Simplify 5/3/10= 5/3×10

9. Simplify 3×10=30 5/30=v

10. Simplify 5/30 = 1/6v

11. Swith sides v= 1/6

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Tia and Ken sold snack bars and magazine subscriptions for the school fundraiser. Tia sold 16 snack bars and 4 magazine subscrip
Aliun [14]

Answer:

The value of the snack bar is $ 2 and that of the magazine subscription is 25 $

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a system of two equations and two unknowns, which would be the following:

let "x" be the cost of the snack bar

Let "y" be the cost of the magazine subscription

16 * x + 4 * y = 132

20 * x + 6 * y = 190 => y = (190 - 20 * x) / 6

replacing:

16 * x + 4 * (190 - 20 * x) / 6 = 132

16 * x + 126.66 - 13.33 * x = 132

2.66 * x = 132 - 126.66

x = 5.34 / 2.66

x = 2

for "y":

y = (190 - 20 * 2) / 6

y = 25

Which means that the value of the snack bar is $ 2 and that of the magazine subscription is 25 $

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3 years ago
nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146

P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 2)

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146

P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

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